Model Question Paper – 1

Model Question Paper – 1

1. The oldest evidence of farming in the Indian subcontinent have been found in which of the following places
(a) Lothal
(b) Harappa
(c) Mehargarh
(d) Mundigak
2. Nishk, and ornament of the rigvedik era was worn in which part of body?
(a) Ears
(b) Neck
(c) Arm
(d) Wrist
3. Which of the following are considered to be the center of Aryan culture during later rigvedic era.
(a) Anga, Magadh
(b) Kosal, Videh
(c) Kuru Panchal
(d) Matsya, Sursen
4. Which of the following deities is shown carrying a plow in arts and picture?
(a) Krishna
(b) Balram
(c) Kartikeya
(d) Maitrey
5. Lumbini was the birthplace of Gautam Buddha, which of the following sculptures support this fact?
(a) Ashok
(b) Kanishk
(c) Harsh
(d) Dharmpal
6. Who among the following was the first ruler to take initiative in water resource management in Girnar province?
(a) Chandragupta Maurya
(b) Ashok
(c) Rudradaman
(d) Skandagupta
7. Devagupta was also a name of which of the following rulers of Gupta dynasty? 
(a) Samudragupta
(b) Chandragupta
(c) Kumargupta
(d) None of the above
8. The ancient monuments of Elephanta is related to 
(i) Buddhism
(ii) Jain
(iii) Shaiva
(iv) Vaishnav
> Choose your answer from the codes given below. Code:
(a) (i) only
(b) (ii) only
(c) (iii) only
(d) (i) & (iii) only
9. “I had almost lost India for a handful of millets”. To which of the following medieval era ruler would you attribute the above statement ?
(a) Alauddin Khilji
(b) Muhammad Tughlaq
(c) Sher Shah
(d) Aurangzeb
10. Where did Jahangir grant a meeting to Thomas Roe?
(a) Agra
(b) Ajmer
(c) Delhi
(d) Fatehpur Sikri
11. Aurangzeb was fluent with which of the following musical instruments?
(a) Sitar
(b) Pakhavaj
(c) Veena
(d) None of the above
12. Which of the following pairs is not matched correctly?
(a) Akbar’s tomb Sikandara
(b) Jahangir’s tomb Sahadara
(c) Sheikh Salim Chisti’s tomb Fatehpur Sikri
(d) Tomb of Sheikh Nizammuddin Auliya Ajmer
13. During which era did the power of Maratha King became irrelevant and all the powers went to the Peshva?
(a) Balaji Vishvanath
(b) Bajirao – 1
(c) Balaji Rao
(d) Madhav Rao – 1
14. Who were the first European people were the first to arrive in India for tråde?
(a) Dutch
(b) British
(c) French
(d) Portuguese
15. Where was the first conference of the Indian National Congress convened?
(a) Bombay
(b) Poona
(c) Madras
(d) Calcutta
16. Where did the newspaper, Indian Mirror publish from in 1880 ?
(a) Bombay
(b) Calcutta
(c) Madras
(d) Pondichery
17. Name the organization which was founded by Surendra Nath Banerjee and which was merged with the Indian National Congress in 1886. 
(a) East India Association
(b) London India Society
(c) Indian Association
(d) Indian National Conference
18. Which of the following enforced the Vernacular Press Act?
(a) Lord Litton
(b) Lord Ripon
(c) Lord Curzon
(d) Lord Hastings
19. Who was the president of Indian National Congress during the Surat session in 1907?
(a) RB Bose
(b) BG Tilak
(c) Annie Besant
(d) G K. Gokhle
20. Who among the following founded the Homerule Society ?
(a) Annie Besant
(b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(c) Shyamji Krishna Verma
(d) Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi
21. Who opposed the Champaran movement started by Mahatma Gandhi?
(a) Rabindra Nath Tagore
(b) N G Ranga
(c) Rajkumar Shukl
(d) Rajendra Prasad
22. In which language was the first edition of Gadar published ? 
(a) Urdu
(b) Hindi
(c) English
(d) Marathi
23. Peer Panjal range is found in
(a) in Arunachal Pradesh
(b) in Jammu & Kashmir
(c) in Punjab
(d) in Uttarakhand
24. Which of the following rivers is an example of imposed river?
(a) Alaknanda
(b) Kosi
(c) Chambal
(d) Godavari
25. River Sankosh forms a boundary between –
(a) between Bihar and West Bengal
(b) between Assam and Arunachal Pradesh
(c) between Assam and West Bengal
(d) between Bihar and Jharkhand
26. Sagwan and Sal are a produce of
(a) tropical dry autumn forest
(b) tropical evergreen forest
(c) tropical thorny forest
(d) hill forest
27. Tulbul project is situated on which of the following rivers ?
(a) Chenab
(b) Ravi
(c) Beas
(d) Jhelum
28. Which of the following is the original source of river Son ?
(a) Amarkantak in Shahdol district
(b) Sonmura in Shahdol district
(c) Son Bachchavar in Bilaspur
(d) Mandala plateau
29. Rubber industry in India is located in
(a) in Panjim
(b) in Bangalore
(c) in Puduchery
(d) in Aurangabad
30. Largest port in India is
(a) in Vishakhapattnam
(b) in Mumbai
(c) in Tuticorin
(d) in Kandla
31. Which country’s reserved land system is considered best ?
(a) China
(b) Costa Rica
(c) India
(d) Switzerland
32. Which of the following countries are included in the golden crescent ?
(i) Afghanistan
(ii) Iran
(iii) Iraq
(iv) Pakistan
> Choose your answer from the codes given below.
Code:
(a) (i) and (ii) only
(b) (iii) and (iv) only
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
(d) (i), (ii) and (iv) only
33. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Kimberley – Diamond
(b) Witwatersand – Gold
(c) Katanga – Copper
(d) Saar – Iron ore
34. The equator crosses through
(a) Republic of Central Africa
(b) through Kenya
(c) through Saravak
(d) through Venezuela
35. Which of the following is/are active volcano?
(i) Ankaragua
(ii) Cotopaxi
(iii) Etna
(iv) Fujiyama
> Choose your answer from the codes given below.
(a) (i) and (ii) only
(b) (iii) and (iv) only
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
(d) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
36. Which of the following pairs is not matched correctly ?
(a) Ghana – Ankara
(b) Kenya – Nairobi
(c) Namibia – Windhoek
(d) Nigeria – Rabat
37. In which of the following straits is there a tunnel that connects England and France?
(a) Davis Strait
(b) Denmark Strait
(c) Strait of Dover
(d) Strait of Gibraltar
38. The coast of which of the following oceans is also known as Ring of Fire?
(a) Atlantic ocean
(b) Pacific ocean
(c) Indian ocean
(d) None of the above
39. Alexendria Seaport is located in
(a) Egypt
(b) Israel
(c) Jordan
(d) Libya
40. Maize is the staple food for which of the following group of countries ?
(a) Western Europe
(b) Russia
(c) Central Africa
(d) South East Asia
41. On the basis of population, which of the following class of cities is categorized as small towns?
(a) Class VI
(b) Class V and VI
(c) Class IV, V and VI
(d) Class III, IV, V and VI
42. Cities with maximum number of slums have been reported in which of the following states ?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Uttar Pradesh
43. When was the first ever census carried out in India ?
(a) 1921
(b) 1881
(c) 1911
(d) 1931
44. Which of the following factors can be deemed as the reason for the shift in farming of sugar cane from North to South India?
(i) better yield per hectare
(ii) more saccharose in the sugar cane
(iii) a longer milling season
(iv) cheap labour
> Choose your answer from the codes given below:
(a) (i) and (ii) only
(b) (ii) and (iii) only
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
(d) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
45. Which of the following crops are usually cultivated in subsistence farming?
(a) coarse grains and rice
(b) cotton and tobacco
(c) tea and coffee
(d) fruits and vegetables.
46. Which of the following sectors attained a high growth rate due to a change in the condition of cooperative units?
(a) sugar
(b) cotton cloths
(c) jute
(d) cement
47. Which bank is the first to open its branch in China?
(a) IDBI Bank
(b) HDFC Bank
(c) State Bank of India
(d) Punjab National Bank
48. What is meant by mixed economy ?
(a) Co-existence of small and large scale industries
(b) Co-existence of public and private sectors
(c) Co-existence of rich and poor
(d) Promotion of both agriculture as well as industries
49. What is meant by hidden export ?
(a) export of services
(b) export of contraband items
(c) export of unrecorded items
(d) export of smuggled goods
50. The headquarters of World Trade Organization is situated at ?
(a) Doha
(b) Geneva
(c) Rome
(d) New York
51. Which of the following countries is world’s third largest economy?
(a) Japan
(b) Malaysia
(c) India
(d) China
52. A farming system in which the crops are planted in the space between other crops is known as
(a) relay cropping
(b) milvan farming
(c) intercropped
(d) ele farming
53. A high amount of gypsum is required for
(a) paddy crop
(b) berseem
(c) wheat crops
(d) peanut crop
54. Piegeon pea originated from —
(a) America
(b) India
(c) South Africa
(d) Egypt
55. A leading producer of soya bean in India is the state of – 
(a) Chhattisgarh
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Uttar Pradesh
56. Varuna is a species of
(a) mustard
(b) flaxseed
(c) sunflower
(d) sesame
57. Consider the following statements: Assertion (A): West Bengal is the largest producer of fisheries in India.
Reason (R): West Bengal is located near sea shore. Fisheries industries is well established in West Bengal. Choose your answer from the codes given below.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.
58. Largest farming land that produce rice are found in the state of
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Odisha
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) West Bengal
59. Which of the following pairs is matched correctly?
(a) Simlipal – Assam
(b) Nokrek – Meghalaya
(c) Dihang Dibang – Sikkim
(d) Agatsyamalai – Karnataka
60. The phenomenon of blue moon occurs when
(a) two full moon occurs in one month
(b) four full moons are observed in two consecutive months of a calendar year
(c) two full moons are observed in one month for three times in one calendar year
(d) none of the above
61. How much time did the constituent assembly take to frame the Constitution of India?
(a) 2 years 11 months and 18 days
(b) 2 years 7 months and 23 days
(c) 3 years 4 months and 14 days
(d) 3 years 11 months and 5 days
62. Who among the following presented the preamble of the Constitution of India?
(a) Dr B R Ambedkar
(b) Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru
(c) Dr Rajendra Prasad
(d) Dr C D Deshmukh
63. As per the Human Rights Commission Act 1993 who among the following can be appointed as its chairman?
(a) any serving Justice of the Supreme Court of India
(b) a serving Judge of High Court
(c) only a retired Chief Justice of India
(d) only a retired Chief Justice of high court
64. “The directive principles of state policy is a cheque which can be encashed at the bank’s will”. Who among the following made the above statement?
(a) Dr BR Ambedkar
(b) KM Munshi
(c) Dr Rajendra Prasad
(d) K T Seth
65. Which of the following is not a constitutional body?
(a) Human Rights Commission
(b) State Finance Commission
(c) Lok Sabha Secretariat
(d) Central Finance Commission
66. Which of the following is not a fundamental duty?
(a) pay respect to the national anthem
(b) preservation of national property
(c) preservation of national symbols and monuments
(d) conservation of natural environment
(d) Dr CD Deshmukh
67. “He represents the nations but he is not a leader of the nation”. This stands true for which of the following ?
(a) Lok Sabha Speaker
(b) President
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Chief Justice of India
68. A motion to remove the Vice President from his office can be brought in
(a) one of the two Houses of Parliament
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) Lok Sabha
(d) None of the above.
69. Who among the following have the authority to bring impeachment motion against the President of India?
(a) both the Houses of Parliament of India
(b) Lok Sabha
(c) Rajya Sabha
(d) Lok Sabha Speaker
70. The President of India can discharge the duties of Governor of a state in contingencies under the provisions of Article
(a) Article 160
(b) Article 162
(c) Article 165
(d) Article 310
71. Which of the following privileges are not enjoyed by the President of India as per the Constitution of India?
(a) Return an ordinary bill for reconsideration
(b) Return a finance bill for reconsideration
(c) Dissolve the Lok Sabha
(d) Appointment of the Prime Minister of India
72. The President of India can announce emergency in which of the following conditions?
(i) External aggression
(ii) Internal disturbances
(iii) Failure of constitutional apparatus in any status
(iv) Financial crisis
Choose your answer from the codes given below.
(a) only (i), (ii) and (iii)
(b) only (i), (iii) and (iv)
(c) only (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(d) only (i), (ii) and (iv)
73. What can be the maximum time for zero hour?
(a) 30 minutes
(b) one hour
(c) indefinite
(d) two hours
74. Which of the following can not be dissolved but can be ended ?
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) State legislative assembly
(d) State legislative councils
75. Which of the following high courts has the most number from benches?
(a) Kolkata High Court
(b) Madhya Pradesh High Court
(c) Bombay High Court
(d) Guwahati High Court
76. Which is issued by the Supreme Court to a public official, public body, corporation, inferior court, tribunal or government asking them to perform their duties?
(a) Certiorari
(b) Mandamus
(c) Quo Warranto
(d) Habeas Corpus
77. Which of the following does not come under the jurisdiction of the High Court of a state?
(a) Advisory jurisdictions
(b) Primary jurisdictions
(c) Vigilance jurisdictions
(d) Appellate jurisdictions
78. Minimum age to cast vote was reduced to 18 years from 21 years through which of the following constitutional amendments?
(a) 44th constitutional amendmens
(b) 52nd constitutional amendment
(c) 61st constitutional amendment
(d) 72nd constitutional amendment
79. Which of the following bills must be passed by both the houses separately and with special majority?
(a) Ordinary bill
(b) Money bill
(c) Finance bill
(d) Constitutional Amendment bill
80. Which of the following pairs is not matched correctly?
(a) Part II of the Constitution of India – Fundamental Rights
(b) Part III of the Constitution of India – Citizenship
(c) Part IV A of the  Constitution of India – Fundamental Duties
(d) Part V of the Constitution of India – Directive Principles of State Policy
81. A free trade zone is one in which
(a) trade is done without any control.
(b) any businessman is free to start his business.
(c) businessmen are provided free infrastructural support.
(d) trade is free of manufacturing tax and the manufacturing is done only for export.
82. Consider the following statements with respect to jet engine and rocket
(i) A jet engine uses surrounding air for oxygen supply and hence it is not suitable for movement in outer space.
(ii) A rocket carries oxygen for combustion with itself. Which of the above statement(s) is/are true?
(a) (i) only
(b) (ii) only
(c) both (i) and (ii)
(d) neither (i) nor (ii)
83. Which of the following will produce more flame?
(a) Boiling water
(b) Steam
(c) Hot air
(d) Sun rays
84. The wall of the hall for a music concert should
(a) increase the sound
(b) propagate the sound
(c) reflect the sound
(d) absorb the sound
85. In Nuclear Science, in heavy water
(a) there is more composite air
(b) deuterium is used in place of hydrogen
(c) there are more dissolved minerals and salt
(d) there are biological impurities
86. Which of the following mechanisms convert electrical energy into mechanical energy?
(a) Dynamo
(b) Generator
(c) Induction coils
(d) Motor
87. The whistle sound of an approaching train increases while that of a receding train decreases. This phenomenon is an example of – 
(a) Raman effect
(b) Joule-Thompson effect
(c) Compton effect
(d) Doppler effect
88. What should be the minimum distance between the source and the obstruction in order to hear a clear echo?
(a) 165 feet
(b) 165 meter
(c) 16.5 feet
(d) 16.5 meter
89. What is the white silver like substance used by the utensil cleaner to shine the utensils?
(a) Zinc
(b) Tin
(c) Lead
(d) Aluminum
90. Acid rain is caused due to air pollution by which of the following ?
(a) Carbon Dioxide
(b) Carbon Monoxide
(c) Methane
(d) Nitrous Oxide and Sulphur Oxide
91. Which of the following is another name for RDX?
(a) Cyanohydrins
(b) Dextrin
(c) Cyclonite
(d) Cyclohexine
92. Water is a substance which is needed by plants in abundance. It is absorbed by
(a) Embryonic zone
(b) Progression point
(c) Prolongation point
(d) Root hairs
93. Which of the following is not a green house gas?
(a) Carbon Dioxide
(b) Sulphur Dioxide
(c) Methane
(d) All of the above
94. Where did M N Roy, a communist ideologue found the Radical Democratic Society in 1940?
(a) Ramgarh
(b) Ranchi
(c) Jamshedpur
(d) Singhbhum
95. For which of the following places of Jharkhand it is said that white elephants were found there ?
(a) Palamu
(b) Ranchi
(c) Singhbhum
(d) Hazaribagh
96. Damin- I Koh a place in Rajmahal district of Jharkhand is known as the residence of which of the following tribes?
(a) Santhal
(b) Asur
(c) Birhor
(d) Ho
97. Which of the following tribes come under the haldhar farmers or permanent farmers?
(a) Santhal
(b) Munda and Oraon
(c) Ho
(d) All of the above
98. Palamu was rule by the Raxels for a long time. Who replaced them?
(a) Chero
(b) Kharvar
(c) Gond
(d) None of the above
99. Which of the following revolutionaries is known as the Jatin Bagha in St Columbus college in Hazaribagh?
(a) Avinash Chandra Banerjee
(b) Ram Vinod Singh
(c) Indu Bhushan Rai
(d) Nirmal Chandra Banerjee
100. What is the percentage area of Jahrkhand as compared to the area of the country?
(a) 5.3%
(b) 3.5%
(c) 2.42%
(d) 4.52%

Answers with Explanation

1. (c) The oldest evidence of agriculture in the Indian subcontinent have been found in Mehargarh region of Baluchistan in present day Pakistan. They belong to the Neolithic era. It should be noted that the oldest evidence of farming in the Gangetic plains have been found in Lahuradewa.
2. (b) The terms Hiranya and Suvarn were used for gold in the rigvedic era. Nishk was an ornament made of gold. It was worn in the neck.
3. (c) The era in Indian history during which Saamveda, Yajurveda, Brahman texts, Aranyaks and Upnishads were created is known as the Vedic era. The Aryans of later vedic era were familiar with the kingdom of Kosal, Videh and Anga during 600 BC. The People of Magadh and Anga were outside the Aryan influence. Puru and Bharat were collective known as Kuru and Turvash and Krivi were called Panchal.
4. (b) Balram is shown with a plow in arts. It shoud be noted that Balram is considered as one of the ten incarnations of lord Vishnu.
5. (a) The originators of Budhhism, Gautam Buddha was born in Lumbini. The Sculptures of the Mauryan emperor Ashok confirm this fact that Gautam Buddha was born in Lumbini.
6. (a) Chandragupta Maurya (founder of Mauryan dynasty) was the first ruler who made arrangements for water management in girnar region (Gujarat/Saurashtra).
7. (b) Devashree, Devgupt, Devraj etc are the names that have been found as an alias for the Gupta ruler Chandragupta II (380-412 AD). Gupta Empire rose to its peak during the reign of Chandragupta II. He expanded his kingdom though matrimony as well as claiming victory in wars. Chandragupta II attained the titles of Vikramank, Param bhaagvat etc.
8. (c) Elephanta was originally known as Dharanagari. This name was given by Portugals because of the large structures that resembeled elephants. It symbolizes the Hindu culture or Shaiv culture. Here the temples have been designed by cutting large rocks. There are 9 large idols of lord Shiva denoting him in various poses and acts. The trimurti idol placed here is the center of special attraction among the tourists. It is 23 or 24 meters long and 7 meters broad. This idols shows all the three forms of lord Shiva.
9. (c) During the war of Marwar, Shershah Suri (1540-45) was so impressed by the valour of Rajputs that he said “I had almost lost entire India because of a handful of maize.”
10. (b) Sir Thomas Roe (appointed by the British Emperor) resided in India from 1615 to 1619. Sir Thomas Roe met Jahangir on 16th January 1616 in Ajmer for the first time. Later he accompanied Jahangir to Mandu in Ahmedabad. In 1619 he returned to England with a royal decree from the emperor that British will be welcomed in the similar fashion in Mughal court. This description was published in Hukulat Society.
11. (c) Aurangzeb had imposed a ban on music due to the notion that it is prohibited in Islam but most of the books on Indian classical music were written in Persian in his era. Despite being opposed to music he was a proficient veena player. Fakirullah translated maankutuhal and renamed it to raagdarpan and presented it to Aurangzeb during his reign.
12. (d) Sheikh Nizamuddin Auliya was originally known as Mohammad Bin Ahmed Bin Ahmad Bin Daniyal Al Bukhari. He was born in Badayun in 1236. Sheikh Nizammuddin Auliya died in 1325. He was cremated in Giyaaspur (Delhi). Amir Khusro and Amir Hasan Dehlavi were among his known disciples.
13. (e) During the tenure of Balaji Bajirao (1740-1761, was famously called Nana Sahab) the position of the king became nominal and all the powers were given to Peshva. It should be noted that with the treaty of Sangola in 1750 Maratha Chhatrapati or king became a nominal position. Peshva (hereditary) became the head of Maratha fiefdom and the center of Maratha politics shifted to Poona.
14. (d) Portuguese (1498) were the first to arrive in India, they were followed by the Dutch (1502). Then came the British in 1599. Later on the Dens came to India in 1616. Then came the French in 1664. It should be noted here that the Portuguese were the first to arrive and the last to leave (1961).
15. (a) A O Hume founded The Indian National Union in 1884. Its first session was organized in Gokuldas Tejpal Sanskrit School presided by Vyomesh Chandra Banerjee on 28th December 1885 in Bombay. Dadabhai Naoroji suggested to change the name of organization to Indian National Congress in this session. This session was attended by 72 members.
16. (b) Indian Mirror was published in 1861 by Devendra Nath Tagore, Manmohan Ghosh etc in Calcutta. It was published in English language.
17. (d) Indian Association organized a conference of a different All India organization named Indian National Conference in Calcutta in 1883. Its second session was organized in Calcutta in 1885. Indian National Conference was merged with Indian National Congress in 1886 on the suggestion of Surendra Nath Banerjee.
18. (a) Vernacular Press Act, 1878 was enforced by Lord Litton. This act was a huge blow to news papers [published in regional languages]. This act empowered the district magistrate to force any regional news paper to give a declaration on bond paper that it will not publish any anti government piece. Magistrate could cancel the bond of any printer who opposed the act.
19. (a) The Surat Session of Indian National congress which was held on 26th December 1907 at the banks of river Tapti was presided by Ras Bihari Bose. It was this session in which the Indian National Congress bifurcated into revolutionaries and reformists or Naram Dal and Garam Dal.
20. (c) The oldest revolutionary organization situated outside India was Indian Homerule Society which was founded by Shyamji Krishna Varma in 1905. V D Savarkar, Hardayal and Madan Lal Dhingra were some of its prominent members. The chief objective of this organization was to establish self rule in India. This organization published a magazine called Indian Sociologist and also founded India House.
21. (b) N G Ranga opposed the Champran Satyagrah by Mahatma Gandhi. It should be noted here that Mahatma Gandhi had arrived in Champaran at the invitation of Raj Kumar Shukl. During the Champaran satyagrah Mahatma Gandhi was accompanied by Rajendra Prasad, Braj Kishore, Mahadev Desai, JB Kriplani etc. Rabindra Nath Tagore was immensely impressed by Gandhiji’s excellent leadership skills and gave him the title of Mahatma.
22. (a) Gadar Party was founded by Lala Hardayal in San Francisco (USA) in 1913. Lala Hardayal and his collegues started a newspaper called Gadar. Originally it was published in Gurumukhi and Urdu. Later on it was also published in Gujarati and Hindi.
23. (b) The Peer Panjal range in central Himalaya is located in Jammu Kashmir and the other ranges like – Dhauladhar range is located in Hiamchal Pradesh, Naag Tibashreni and Mahabharat Range in Nepal, Mussoorie Range in Kumaon.
24. (c) Chambal river is an example of superimposed drainage. It should be noted that Chambal originates in Janpav hills Mahu Indore district in Madhya Pradesh at a height of 854 meter. The length of river Chambal is 1040 meter.
25. (c) River Sankosh marks a boundary between Assam and West Bengal.
26. (a) Sagwan and Sal are the produce of tropical humid deciduous forest. This region receives an average rainfall of 100 to 200 cm. Tropical humid dry forest is found in most of the regions.
27. (d) India started the Tulbul project | in 1984 after it felt a dire need of boat ferry between Wullar lake in Kashmir and Sopor. A dam on wular lake situated in river Jhelum is proposed under this project. Pakistan has opposed this project claiming that India will build dam to store water of river Jhelum which will be a violation of Indus Water Treaty.
28. (a) River Son originates from the Amarkantak plateau in Satpura hills (near Shahdol district). This river flows through Mirzapur and Sonbhadra districts in Uttar Pradesh before merging with Ganga near Rampur in the state of Bihar. It should be noted that this 780 km long river used to meet Ganga in Patna thousands years ago.
29. (a) The rubber industry in India is situated in Panjim (Panaji) in Goa. It should be noted that the largest rubber producing state is Kerala.
30. (b)
31. (c) India is the only country in the world where the land has been classified in various types. Therefore on the basis of area the maximum agricultural land is found in India.
32. (C) Afghanistan, Iran and Iraq together are called the Golden Crescent and Ethiopia, Somalia and Djibouti together form the horn of Africa.
33. (d) Cut diamonds which are used to make jewellery are produced in Kimberly (South Africa) and Zaire (Bakwanga) Rand hills or the wit waters Rand in south Africa is known for gold production. The Katanga region (Kinshasha, Kambove, Musonai,
Kamoti etc) in Zaire is known for copper and the Saar region is famous for coal production.
34. (d) The equator passes through Kenya, Congo, Basin, Brazil, Colombia, Ecuador etc. Tropic of Capricorn passes through Madagascar, Mozambique, South Africa, Botswana, Namibia, Brazil, Paraguay, Chili etc.
35. (d) Cotopaxi, Etna and Fujiyama are active volcanoes. Etna is situated in the Mediterranean Sea on the eastern coast of Sicily. Cotopaxi is situated in Ecuador in the continent of South America and Fujiyama is situated in Japan.
36. (d) Abuja is the capital of Nigeria. Ankara is the capital of Ghana, Nairobi is the capital of Kenya, Lusaka is the capital of Jambia. Windhoek is the capital of Namibia. It should be noted here that all these countries are located in the African continent.
37. (c) The Strait of Denmark (North Atlantic and Arctic ocean) joins England and France. Dovan Strait (English channel and North Sea) joins England and France. Davis strait (basin gulf and atlantic ocean) joins Greenland and Canada and The Strait of Gibraltar (Mediterranean Sea and Atlantic ocean) joins Spain and Morocco. Note: A tunnel in the Davis strait joins England and France.
38. (b) Pacific Ocean is spread across one third area of the earth and its area is more than the combined area of the land. Almost two third volcanoes of the world are surrounding the Pacific ocean. They are also known as ring of fire.
39. (a) Alexendria port is situated in Egypt. Port of Haifa is situated in Israel, Jeddah Islamic port is situated in Saudi Arabia, Massawa port is situated in Eritrea, Jakarta port is situated in Indonesia and Lagos port is situated in Nigeria.
40. (c)
41. (c) Class IV, V, VI cities are included in the category of small cities in the census of India. The classification of population in these is as follows:
IV – 10000 – 19999
V – 5000 – 9999
VI – 5000
42. (b) Maximum number of slum dwellings in India is found in Maharashtra because maximum numbers of cities and towns have been developed in this state. People from outside the state have come here in search of jobs and settled in areas where there is a lack of basic facilities.
43. (b) The first census in the country was conducted in 1872 during the time of Lord Mayo. Realisticaly the census was carried out in 1182 during the tenure of Lord Rippon and it has been regularly carried out since then.
44. (c) The primary reason behind the shifting of sugar mills from North India to South India can be attributed to a better per hectare produce of sugar cane due to (warm temperature, located near a sea shore), better sugar level in sugar cane a longer milling season etc.
45. (a) Coarse grains (millets, maize etc) and rice etc fall under life sustaining agriculture.
46. (a) When a group of people come together in the form of small industries as a cooperative society and carry on their financial transactions though this society then such a group is known as a cooperative. Sugar mills have been able to achieve very good prices through these committees.
47. (c) State Bank of India opened its first branch in China (of all the given alternatives). It should be noted here that Indian banks are operational in 42 countries at present. As per the situation on 30th June 2004 total 10 Indian banks were operational across the world. Out of these 8 belong to the public sector and 2 belong to the private sector. Bank of Baroda had maximum 38 branches across 17 countries. It was followed by State Bank of India with 28 branches across 21 countries. State Bank of India has maximum 18 branches in Britain. The bank had 27 branch offices in Hong Kong, Fiji and Mauritius.
48. (b) A mixed economy is one in which the government carries on the industrial work through public sector like a socialist country so that big industries can be established and the work of larger welfare of society is established as well as allows private players to run industries as done in a capitalist country. Both private and public sector co-exist in a mixed economy.
49. (c) Invisible export means one that can not be seen or an export which exists but can’t be seen. Service sector falls under invisible export. It should be noted that foreign banks, payments to sea vessels and insurance companies, rewards given for services of foreign experts, interest on foreign loans, gifts, dividend on foreign investments etc are known as invisible entities. Their trade is known as invisible export.
50. (b) The Eighth round of GATT commenced in September 1986 in the town called Punta Del Este in Uruguay which went through the passing of Dunkle motion in 1993 in Geneva and passing in the ministerial level in Mrakash in 1994. During the Uruguay round it was negotiated that a new organization called The World Trade Organization (WTO) shall be founded on 1st January 1995 for trade among the countries. WTO replaced GATT from 1st January 1996. The headquarters of World Trade Organization is also in Geneva.
51. (d) China has become third largest economy in world. China has surpassed Germany to attain third position. Now only United States of America and Japan has a GDP higher than China. Germany has come down to fourth position now. It should be noted that China had surpassed Britain in GDP in 2005.
52. (a) Such crops which are grown in between the lines of trees is known as relay farming.
53. (a) Gypsum is required in abundance while performing paddy cultivation. It is used to repair alkaline soil.
54. (b) Piegeon pea has originated in India. Evidence of its cultivation during the Harappa era has also been found.
55. (b) Madhya Pradesh is a leading producer of soya bean. Madhya Pradesh is also known as the soya bean state. Second largest producer of soya bean is Maharashtra whereas Rajasthan stands at the third position in the country.
56. (a)
57. (a) Most number of fresh water fishes in India are caught in West Bengal. This state amounts for almost 30% fishes caught across the country. The fishery industry situated at the coast of the state are very well established.
58. (c) Rice is cultivated on around one fourth of total agricultural land and one third of land cultivated for grains. On the basis of area Uttar Pradesh has the largest land involved in the cultivation of rice.
59. (b) Nokrek ridge and Balphakaram national park is situated in Meghalaya. Simlipalan, Bhitarkarnik etc are located in Odisha; Dihang Dibang, Naamdafa, Maavling etc are situated in Arunachal Pradesh and Agatsyamalai is situated in Tamil Nadu. It should be noted here that during 24 to 29 May 2009 a meeting of MAB-ICC it was decided to award three sanctuaries of India (Simlipal, Nokrek, Panchmadhi) into the list of UNESCO. Agatsyamalai was already in this list.
60. (d) The definition of Blue moon listed in Farmer’s Almanac has been accepted world wide. According to the almanac Blue moon is an astronomical season in which another full moon is witnessed. There are four astronomical season in a year. All the season occurring in an year are as follows: (1) 21st March to 20th June (2) 21st June to 22nd December (3) 23rd December to 21st September (4) 22nd December to 22nd March. All the season lasts for around three months. Every season witnesses around three full moon. But in every 5754 years one of the seasons witnesses an extra fourth full moon. This fourth full moon is known as Blue moon. Therefore the correct answer will be (d).
61. (a) Constituent Assembly took a time of 2 years 11 months and 18 days to prepare the constitution. The total expenditure was around 65 lakh rupees.
62. (b) Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru presented the preamble of the Constitution (Pandit Nehru was the father of this preamble) in the constituent assembly on 13th December 1946. It was adopted by the constituent assembly on 22nd January 1947.
63. (c) The members included in the human rights commission formed through the Human Rights Act are as follows: (i) This commission shall be headed by a retired chief justice of Supreme Court. (ii) One member who have served as the Justice of the Supreme Court. (iii) One member should be a retired Justice of a High Court. (iv) Two persons who have excelled in the field of human rights. Apart from these the chairpersons from the minority commission, SC ST commission, and national commission for women can also be appointed as the member of human rights commission. The details of appointments have been described in the 1993 act passed by the Parliament of India.
64. (d) K T Shah, who was a member of the constituent assembly had made a remark regarding the directive principles of state policy and said that it is cheque which can be encashed at the banks will. Another member Nasiruddin had said that directive principles are similar to resolution taken on the first day of a new year.
65. (a) Human Rights Commission is not a constitutional body but a statutory body. Human Rights commission was established by the parliament in 1193 thourgh law. Other options state finance commission, lok sabha secretariat, and central finance commission.
66. (c) The fundamental duties were added in the constitution through 42nd constitutional amendment on the recommendation of Swarn Singh in Article 51-a of part IV-a. At that time the total number of fundamental duties was 10. But one more fundamental duty was added to it by the 86th Constitutional Amendment. Out of the given alternatives, option c (to preserve the structures and monuments of national importance) is not true. All the other alternatives are true.
67. (b) The parliamentary form of government has been adopted by India. The head of the nation is a nominal post in such arrangement and all the powers reside with the council of ministers and the head of the nation executes his power on the advice of the council. Therefore in context of India it can be said that the head of the nation is a representative of the nation but not the leader of the nation.
68. (b) The motion to remove the Vice President from his office can be brought in Rajya Sabha. According to Article 67 (b) the vice president can be removed from his office by a resolution passed by the current members of the Rajya Sabha by a majority and the Lok Sabha is not opposed to it.
69. (a) Both the houses of the parliament are empowered to bring an impeachment motion against the president of India. It should be noted here that the impeachment against the president can be brought only on the grounds of a constitutional crisis. Till date the parliament has not brought impeachment motion against any president.
70. (a) Article 160 describes the power and functions of governor during some emergency situations. Article 162 – expansion in the power of state assemblies. Article 165 the advocate general of a state. Article 310 tenure of persons serving the union or state.
71. (b) The president does not have the constitutional privilege to return a finance bill to the parliament for reconsideration and the other alternatives like returning a normal bill for reconsideration, dissolving the Lok Sabha, Appointment of Prime Minister and persons on other constitutional positions are true.
72. (b) There are three kinds of emergency that have been described in the Constitution of India. (a) during war, external aggression or armed rebellion (Article 352); (b) on the failure of constitutional mechanism in one or more states (Article 356); (c) financial or economic aggression (Article 360).
73. (b) The time immediately after the completion of question hour in both the houses of the parliament is known as zero hour. It is zero hour in more than one sense. It commences after the question hour which is 12 pm and the time of 12 pm is neither morning nor noon. It goes on for one hour till 1 pm hence it is called hour. After that the house is adjourned for lunch. The name zero hour was coined by a newspaper during the decade of 1960 and 70 when the matter of serious public order could be raised without any prior notice.
74. (d) The state legislative assembly is a permanent body and its members are appointed for a period of 6 years. The legislative assembly is never dissolved but as per the provisions in Article 169 it can be removed. This article contains the provisions for formation and removal of legislative assembly. At present six Indian states – Uttar Pradesh, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Bihar, Jammu Kashmir, Andhra Pradesh have legislative assembly.
75. (d) At the time of question there were 6 benches in the Guahati High Court. | But with the formation of High Courts in Manipur, Maghalaya and Tripura in 2013, the number of benches has reduced to three. In the present context Mumbai and Guwahati each has three benches.
76. (b) The Supreme Court of India issues mandamus to any person or organization to discharge his duty. This order is limited not only to individuals serving on a public positions and other people but also to the government and lower courts, judicial institutions as well if they fail to execute their authority or duty.
77. (a) High Court enjoys two kinds of power (1) judiciary related (ii) administration related. Advice related powers come under the area of Supreme Court. The Supreme Court draws its advisory powers through Article 143.
78. (c) Through the 61st Constitutional Amendment 1989, Article 326 was amended and the minimum age to vote was lowered to 18 from 21. The 52nd Constitutional Amendment 1985 Anti Defection law was passed in the parliament.
79. (d) The provisions to amend the constitution is stated in Article 368 of the Constitution of India. It explains three ways in which a constitution can be amended. A constitutional amendment bill should be passed from the both the house with majority. A joint session can not be called for a constitutional amendment. Ordinary bill, Money bill and Finance bill can be passed by a simple majority.
80. (c) Part 1 – Union and its territory. Part 2-Citizenship. Part 3 – Fundamental Rights. Part 4 – Directive Principles of State Policy. 4A – Fundamental Duties. Part 5 Union. Part 6 – States. Part 7 – States listed in Part B of schedule 1. Part 8 – the Union territories. Part 9 – Panchayat. 9A Municipalities. Part 10-the Scheduled and Tribal areas.
81. (d) Free trade zone implies a place where export trading takes place. In India, Kandla was declared a free trade zone.
82. (a) A jet engine uses the air around it for oxygen supply and hence is not fit for space movement. Thus statement 1 is true. Whereas a rocket takes oxygen with itself not in gaseous but liquid state, therefore statement 2 is false.
83. (b) Steam produces more heat as compared to boiling water because steam has more latent heat than boiling water. The SI unit for latent heat is KJ/Kg.
84. (d) Theaters use sound absorbers like stones to negate the effect of echoes and noise.
85. (b) Heavy water is also known as deuterium oxide. In its compostion hydrogen is replaced by deuterium. Heavy water was found by Yure and Bashberg in 1932. Its boiling point is 101.4 degree Celsius and freezing point is 1.4 degree Celsius. Heavy water is used as a moderator in nuclear reactor, a traser and removal of hydrogen fron ionic and unionic substances.
86. (d)
87. (d) If there is a relative movement between the source and the receiver of sound then the frequency of the sound at the source is different from the frequency at the receiver. This is known as dopler’s effect. Dopler’s effect is the reason the whistle of a train coming near or going far seems different than its actual pitch.
88. (d) When sound waves are reflected back from a tower or hill then the phenomenon is known as echo. To be able to hear a echo the distance between the listener and the obstruction should at least be 17 (16.06) meter.
89. (a) Zinc is used to clean copper utensils.
90. (d) The environmental change occurring due to increase in pollution due to sulphur dioxide, carbon dioxide and nitrogen dioxide is known as acid rain. They begin to fall on earth’s surface in the form of dew or rain. They are very harmful for people and animals of the earth.
91. (c) RDX explosive is known as cyclonite in USA, Hexogen in Germany and T-4 in Italy. It is also known as research and development explosive. It is a deadly explosive. Aluminium powder is also mixed in this explosive to raise the temperature and fire.
92. (a) Roots can be divided into various kinds. Roots expand towards the earth due to gravity and in search of water. Roots supply the plant with nutrients and water.
93. (b) The green house effect is clearly visible today. Like untimely rainfall, snow fall, decline in trees. Carbon dioxide, chloro fluoro carbon and methane form the major constituent of green house gases. There are 6 other small gases involved as well. They are all responsible for global warming.
94. (a)
95. (a)
96. (a)
97. (d)
98. (a)
99. (b)
100. (c)

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