Model Question Paper – 10
Model Question Paper – 10
1. Dadheri is a latter Harrapa archeological site of –
(a) Jammu
(b) Punjab
(c) Haryana
(d) Uttar Pradesh
2. Rigvedic sect is –
(a) Polytheistic
(b) Monotheistic
(c) Atheistic
(d) None of the above
3. What is the correct chronological order of the following pillars ?
(a) Bharuhat, Sanchi, Amravati, Dhamekh
(b) Amravati, Sanchi, Bharuhat, Dhamekh
(c) Sanchi, Amravati, Bharhul, Dhamekh
(d) Dhamekh, Bharuhat, Amravati, Sanchi
4. What is the correct chronological order of the following vedic literatures?
(a) Vedic Samhita, Brahman, Aranyak, Upanishad
(b) Vedic Samhita, Upanishad, Aranyak, Brahman
(c) Vedic Samhita, Aranyak, Brahman, Upanishad
(d) Vedic Samhita, Vedang, Aranyak, Smriti
5. Which of the following religions do not believe in the concept of Judgement day?
(a) Buddhism
(b) Jainism
(c) Hinduism
(d) Islam
6. Which event in Buddhha’s life is also known as Mahabhinishkraman (great departure)?
(a) His Mahaparinirvan
(b) His birth
(c) Leaving his home
(d) His preaching
7. Match Column I and Column II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below
Column I – Column II
A. Hampi 1. Puduchery
B. Nagarjunkonda 2. Karnataka
C. Shishupalgarh 3. Andhra Pradesh
D. Arikamud 4. Odisha
Code:
A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1
(b) 3 2 4 1
(c) 1 3 2 4
(d) 4 2 3 1
8. The Rath Temples in Mahabalipuram were built by –
(a) Cholas
(b) Pallavas
(c) Chedis
(d) Chalukyas
9. Which of the following Chines travelers have given a description about the relation between China. and India during the rule of Chalukyas ?
(a) Fa Hien
(b) Huen Tsang
(c) Itsing
(d) Matvalin
10. Name the Chola ruler who won the northern part of Sri Lanka ?
(a) Raja Raj I
(b) Rajendra I
(c) Parantak I
(d) Aditya I
11. In Sangam literature, Tolkapiyam is a literature of –
(a) Tamil poetry
(b) Tamil grammar
(c) Tamil internal architecture (vastu shastra)
(d) Tamil Rajshastra
12. Surkhi in Indian architecture (vastu shastra) started by –
(a) Kushanas
(b) Guptas
(c) Sultans of sultanate
(d) Mughals
13. The battle of Talikota was fought between –
(a) Akbar and Sultan and Malwa
(b) Vijayanagar and state of Bahmani
(c) Vijaynagar and Bijapur, Golkonda of Ahmadnagar
(d) Sher Shah and Humayun
14. What was the original name of Banda Bahadur?
(a) Mahesh Das
(b) Lachchan Dev
(c) Dwarka Das
(d) Harnam Das
15. French East India company was formed during –
(a) The reign of Louis XIV
(b) The reign of Louis XIII
(c) The reign of Louis XV
(d) The reign of Louis XVI
16. Which of the following is not matched correctly ?
(a) Lord Cornwallis settlement – Permanent
(b) Lord Wellesley – Subsidiary alliance system
(c) Sir John Shore – Anglo Nepal war
(d) Lord Hastings – Third Anglo Maratha war
17. Who among the following returned his title of Haziq ul Mulk during the khilafat movement ?
(a) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(b) Mohammad Ali
(c) Shaukat Ali
(d) Hakim Ajmal Khan
18. Whch of the following is matched correctly ?
(a) First Anglo Mysore war – defeat of Haider Ali
(b) Second Anglo Mysore war – Haider Ali defeated the British
(c) Third Anglo Mysore war – Tipu Sultan won and denied the British his land
(d) Fourth Anglo Mysore war – Tipu Sultan was defeated and died in the war
19. Match Column I and Column II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below.
Column I – Column II
A. Land Holders Society 1. M. N. Banerjee
B. British India Society 2. Anand Mohan Bose
C. Indian Society 3. William Adams
D. Indian Association 4. Dwarka Nath Tagore
Code:
A B C D
(a) 4 3 2 1
(b) 4 2 3 1
(c) 3 2 4 1
(d) 4 1 2 3
20. Whom did Mahatma Gandhi choose to assist him in writing the new constitution for the Indian National Congress as decided in the Amritsar session of 1919?
(i) B. G. Tilak
(ii) N. C. Kelkar
(iii) C. R. Das
(iv) I. B. Sen
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below
(a) 2 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
21. Match column I and column II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below.
Column I – Column II
A. Leader 1. Madan Mohan Malaviya
B. Bombay Chronicle 2. Feroz Shah Mehta
C. Independent 3. T. M. Nair
D. Justice 4. Moti Lal Nehru
Code:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 4 3
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 3 2 1 4
(d) 4 1 2 3
22. Who said “critical and free thinking are the twin qualities that a revolutionary must inevitably possess”?
(a) Bhagat Singh
(b) Ram Prasad Bismil
(c) Sachindranath Sanyal
(d) Bhagwati Charan Vohra
23. Harijan Sevak Sangh was earlier known as –
(a) All India Anti Untouchability League
(b) All India Depressed Classes Association
(c) Depressed Classes Association For Social Reforms
(d) Association of Untouchables
24. Match column I and column II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below
Column I – Column II
A. Aleutian Islands 1. Russia
B. Bear Islands 2. Denmark
C. Greenland 3. Norway
D. Franz Josef Islands 4. U.S.A.
Code:
A B C D
(a) 4 3 2 1
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 3 1 4 2
(d) 2 4 1 3
25. Mouna Loa is an active volcano located in –
(a) Hawaii Islands
(b) Alaska
(c) Italy
(d) Japan
26. Which of the following is not a result of tertiary mountainization ?
(a) Kunlun
(b) Appalachian
(c) Alps
(d) Andes
27. Which of the following waterfalls situated in Goa ?
(a) Dhuandhar falls
(b) Dudhsagar waterfalls.
(c) Nohkalikai falls
(d) Langshiang falls
28. Which of the following is not a current of the Indian Ocean ?
(a) Agulhas current
(b) Mozambique current
(c) South Indian Ocean current
(d) Venguela current
29. Which of the following lakes of India is situated in Assam?
(a) Hamirsar Lake
(b) Koleru Lake
(c) Sala Lake
(d) Chapnala Lake
30. Which of the following cities is also known as the Manchester of East ?
(a) Nagoya
(b) Tokyo
(c) Sendai
(d) Osaka
31. Which of the following is known as the Osaka of India ?
(a) Regur Soil
(b) Laterite Soil
(c) Alluvial soil
(d) Red Soil
32. What is the correct descending order of states of India in terms of coal reserve?
(a) Odisha, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh
(b) Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Madhya Pradesh, Jharkhand
(c) Jharkhand, Odisha, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh
(d) Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Odisha
33. Match column I and column II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below.
Column I – Column II
A. Telaiya Dam 1. Damodar
B. Panchet Hill Dam 2. Chambal Dam
C. Rana Pratap Sagar Dam 3. Barakar
D. Matatila Dam 4. Betwa
Code:
A B C D
(a) 3 1 2 4
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 1 2 3 4
(d) 4 1 2 3
34. Which of the following pairs is not matched correctly ?
Census – Gender ratio in India
(a) 1951 – 946
(b) 1991 – 938
(c) 2001 – 933
(d) 2011 – 940
35. According to census 2011, which of the following states of India has highest population ?
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Odisha
(d) Uttar Pradesh
36. India’s population growth rate in the decade of 2001-2011 was –
(a) 17.6%
(b) 19.5%
(c) 21%
(d) 22%
37. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(a) Shipkila – Himachal Pradesh
(b) Lipu Lekh – Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Nathula – Sikkim
(d) Zojila – Jammu & Kashmir
38. Laghu Krishak Vikas Yojan was launched in –
(a) 1947
(b) 1975
(c) 1980
(d) 1961
39. Malaviya Chamatkar is a variety of
(a) Pea
(b) Arhar
(c) Moong
(d) Wheat
40. NABARD came into existence in –
(a) 1979
(b) 1980
(c) 1981
(d) 1982
41. Match column I and column II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below.
Column I – Column II
Crop – Disease
A. Sugar Cane 1. Late Blight
B. Paddy 2. Red Rite
C. Arhar 3. Khaira
D. Potato 4. Bilt
Code:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 3 2 1 4
(d) 4 3 2 1
42. Longterm Agricultural loan is provided by
(a) Primary cooperative societies
(b) District cooperative banks
(c) Land development banks
(d) State cooperative banks
43. Main banks (14) were nationalized in
(a) 1968
(b) 1969
(c) 1970
(d) 1971
44. Consider the following pairs
Name of the Banks – Location of Headquarters
(i) Allahabad Bank – Kolkata
(ii) Industrial Development Bank of India – Mumbai
(iii) Indian Overseas Bank – Chennai
Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) (i) only
(b) (ii) only
(c) (iii) only
(d) (i) and (iii) only
45. In the long term perspective of commerce ministry of India, the country has to become a major player in world trade by the year
(a) 2018
(b) 2019
(c) 2020
(d) 2021
46. Which of the following consists of most variable bio diversity ?
(a) Temperate deciduous forest biome
(b) Tropical rain forest biome
(c) Temperate grass land biome
(d) Savanna biome
47. Who was the first governor general of independent India ?
(a) Lord Mountbatten
(b) Sir Stanford Cripps
(c) C. Rajagopalachari
(d) Morarji Desai
48. The foreign policy of India which is neutral was started by –
(a) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(b) Smt. Indira Gandhi
(c) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(d) Morarji Desai
49. Largest rubber producing state of India is –
(a) Uttarakhand
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Karnataka
(d) Kerala
50. Which of the following articles of the constitution of India establishes the process of rightful application of law?
(a) Article 11
(b) Article 16
(c) Article 21
(d) Article 26
51. The term ‘Hindu’ stated in article 25 of the constitution of India does not include which of the following ?
(a) Followers of Buddhist sect
(b) Followers of Jain sect
(c) Followers of Sikhism
(d) Followers of Zoroastrianism
52. Which of the following is not a fundamental right ?
(a) Right against exploitation
(b) Equal pay for equal work
(c) Equality before law
(d) Right to follow religion of one’s choice
53. How many fundamental dutie have been stated in the constitution of India?
(a) Nine
(b) Eleven
(c) Twelve
(d) Twenty
54. Which of the following has not been stated in Part IV A (Fundamental duties) of the constitution of India ?
(a) Respecting the national flag
(b) Develop a feeling of fraternity among all Indians
(c) Respecting one’s parents and teachers
(d) Safeguarding our culture and monuments of historical importance.
55. The idea of human rights stresses on –
(a) Right to property
(b) Right to equality
(c) Right to practice religion
(d) Human dignity
56. The constitution of India adopted the idea of concurrent list from –
(a) Canada
(b) Australia
(c) United State of America
(d) Great Britain
57. Who among the following is the legal advisor of state?
(a) Attorney General
(b) Advocate General
(c) Solicitor General
(d) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
58. How many types of emergency I have been stated within the constitution of India?
(a) Two
(b) Four
(c) Three
(d) One
59. If the office of both the President and Vice President of India fall vacant as the same time then who among the following shall temporarily discharge the duties of the President of India?
(a) Prime Minister of India
(b) Chief Justice of Supreme Court of India
(c) Chief of Armed Forces
(d) None of the above
60. Which of the following is true? Special feature of Presidential form of government is –
(a) President is the head of the state
(b) President is free to appoint his council of Ministers
(c) President cannot dissolve the legislature
(d) None of the above is true
61. Who decides is a bill is money bill or not?
(a) President
(b) Minister of parliamentary affairs
(c) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
(d) Lok Sabha speaker
62. Speaker of the Lok Sabha can resign from his office by tendering his resignation addressed to –
(a) The President
(b) The Prime Minister
(c) Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(d) Chief justice of India
63. Who administers the oath of office and confidence to the governor ?
(a) President
(b) Vice President
(c) Chief Justice of the High Court of the state
(d) Speaker of the Vidhan Sabha of the state
64. What is the maximum number of representatives in a Vidhan Sabha of any state of India ?
(a) 400
(b) 450
(c) 500
(d) 550
65. Which of the following alternatives is incorrect? Public Finance is a study of financial activities of the government. Following falls under this ambit –
(a) Examination of public expenditure
(b) Public revenue
(c) Financial administration
(d) Functioning of public sector banks
66. Which of the following is not a program for employment generation and eradication of poverty, launched by the government of India ?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
(b) National Rural Livelihood Mission
(c) Golden Jubilee Urban Employment Scheme
(d) National Social Security Fund
67. Which of the following is not considered responsible for unemployment?
(a) Rapid population growth
(b) Lack of skill
(c) Increase in per capita income
(d) Lack of human resource man agement
68. Match column I and column II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below.
Column I – Column II
A. First Five Year plan 1. 1980-85
B. Third Five Year Plan 2. 1951-56
C. Fourth Five Year Plan 3. 1961-66
D. Sixth Five Year Plan 4. 1969-74
Code:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 2 3 1 4
(d) 1 4 2 3
69. The Reserve Bank of India has accepted the proposal for setting up of payment banks in order to accomplish financial inclusion. Who among the following recommended this ?
(a) Arvind Mayaram
(b) Yuddhvir Reddy
(c) Bimal Jalan
(d) Nachiketa More
70. Which of the following devices is used to cool down the engine of an automobile ?
(a) Polygraph
(b) Turbine
(c) Rediator
(d) Quint Radiator
71. The concept of Thermal Ionization is an important contribution of –
(a) H. J. Bhabha
(b) M. N. Saha
(c) C. V. Raman
(d) J. C. Bose
72. A rocket works on which of the following concepts?
(a) Avogadro concept
(b) Conservation of energy
(c) Conservation of momentum
(d) Bernoullis theorem
73. The internal pressure of a soap bubble is –
(a) Equal to atmospheric pressure
(b) Greater than atmospheric pressure
(c) Lower than atmospheric pressure
(d) None of the above
74. Which of the following is the best conductor of heat ?
(a) Water
(b) Mercury
(c) Benzene
(d) Leather
75. Mirage is an example of –
(a) Refraction
(b) Dispersion
(c) Diffraction
(d) Total internal reflection
76. Which of the following is used to measure the intensity of an earthquake?
(a) Seismograph
(b) Stethoscope
(c) Comograph
(d) Periscope
77. The colour of light is determined –
(a) Velocity
(b) Amplitude
(c) Frequency
(d) Wavelength
78. Aqua regia, normally used by gold smiths is a mixture of
(a) Nitric acid and Sulfuric acid
(b) Nitric acid and Hydrochloric acid
(c) Sulfuric acid and Hydrochloric acid
(d) Citric acid and Benzoic acid
79. The universally accepted side effect of Cu-T is –
(a) Blood loss
(b) Pain
(c) Puncture
(d) Pelvis inflammatory disease
80. Which of the following is most abundant in human body ?
(a) Iron
(b) Sodium
(c) Oxygen
(d) Iodine
81. Carbon content is maximum in –
(a) Cast iron
(b) Wrought iron
(c) Steel
(d) Mixed steel
82. Which of the following is found in liquid state at normal temperature ?
(a) Lead
(b) Nickel
(c) Mercury
(d) Tin
83. Which of the following is also known as dry ice?
(a) Anhydrous ice
(b) Solid hydrogen peroxide
(c) Solid water
(d) Solid carbon dioxide
84. Divers use which of the following gases for respiration ?
(a) Oxygen and Nitrogen
(b) Oxygen and Helium
(c) Oxygen and Argon
(d) Oxygen and Neon
85. The term Golden hour in medical language refers to –
(a) Last stage of cancer
(b) Information about the fetus in the womb
(c) Heart attack
(d) Actual birth of the child
86. Beta blocker is a medicine used to prevent –
(a) Heart attack
(b) Enlargement of prostate glands
(c) Long time diabetes
(d) None of the above
87. EEG is done to monitor and record the activity of which of the following ?
(a) Heart
(b) Lungs
(c) Brain
(d) Kidney
88. Oral Submucous Fibrosis (OSF) is a disease caused by –
(a) Consumption of alcohol
(b) Smoking
(c) Tobacco based gutkha
(d) Consumption of red meat
89. BMD examination is performed to detect –
(a) Arthritis
(b) Osteoporosis
(c) Osteomalacia
(d) None of the above
90. Apple has an special importance for heart patients. It is also because it is enriched with –
(a) Sodium and Potassium
(b) Phosphorus and Magnesium
(c) Potassium and Phosphorus
(d) Potassium only
91. Which of the following is used to determine about disease in the internal parts of human body?
(a) Cardiograph
(b) Endoscope
(c) Gyroscope
(d) Crest graph
92. Which of the following carbonic compounds is found maximum in nature?
(a) Glucose
(b) Fructose
(c) Sucrose
(d) Cellulose
93. A Phonometer is used to measure which of the following –
(a) Power of brightness of light
(b) Extremely high temperature
(c) Frequency of electromagnetic waves
(d) Atmospheric humidity
94. Which of the following can not be used as a nuclear fuel ?
(a) Uranium
(b) Thorium
(c) Calcium
(d) Plutonium
95. Which of the following was the last event of Quit India Movement in Jharkhand?
(a) Escape of Jay Prakash Narayan from Hazaribagh jail
(b) Arrest of Vachaspati Tripathi on 22nd August 1943
(c) Both a and b
(d) Neither a nor b
96. Which of the foolowing fibrous fruit similar to jute is grown in Jharkhand?
(a) Mesta
(b) Patsan
(c) Sanai
(d) None of the above
97. According to census 2011, the population of farmers in the Jharkhand is –
(a) 96849
(b) 201362
(c) 1966656
(d) 1443959
98. According to forest report 2011, which of the following districts has the largest forest cover ?
(a) West Singhbhum
(b) Palamau
(c) Hazaribagh
(d) Giridih
99. Match column I and Column II and choose your answer from the codes given below
Column I – Column II
Industry – Location
A. Aluminum 1. Dhanbad (Tundi)
B. Copper 2. Ranchi (Muri)
C. Zinc 3..Bokaro.(Gomia)
D. Explosives 4. East Singhbhum
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 3 2 4 1
100. The project elephant started in the state expands to how many districts ?
(a) Three
(b) Four
(c) Five
(d) Six
Answers with Explanation
1. (b) Dadheri post Harappa site is located in Fatehgarh Sahib district of Punjab.
2. (a) Rigvedic religion was polytheistic. Vedic religion was subjected to nature worship. Gods were divided into three categories – Gods who lived on earth, gods who lived in the sky and gods who lived in space. Indra was the chief god. Fire (Agni) comes second. Rigvedic Aryas were complete naturalists. There was no room for renunciation or leaving the family life. They remained in family and tried to maintain wellness by worshiping the deity. Rig-Veda mentions immortality but there is no mention of moksha. Apart from god worship, Rig Veda also stresses on worshiping ancestors. Different yajnas were performed by different priests or purohits. Among them Hota chanted the mantras, adhvaryu assisted in performing the worship rituals and udbhav recited the samveda.
3. (b)
4. (a)
5. (b) Jainism does not believe in the idea of judgment day or a flood that will destroy entire world. It is so because Jainism believes in refusing all kinds of violence. Judgment day also denotes violence. Therefore alternative b is correct.
6. (c)
7. (a)
8. (b) Rath temples at Mahablipuram were built by the Pallavas. There are three main parts of South Indian architecture – Mandap, Rath and grand temples. Pallavas style of architecture was the base of Dravidian style.
9. (b) Chalukyas ruled over Soulth India in between 6th and 12th century. Huen Tsang arrived in India during their tenure and officially toured the court of Pulkeshin II. He had arrived during the rule of Tansh dynasty in China. He also wrote about Indo-China relations.
10. (a) Raj Raja (title – Shivpad Shekhar) annexed northern part of Srilanka and made it a new province of the Chola empire. He named it Mamundri Cholamandalam. Raja Raj made his capital at Polonnarua instead of Anuradhapur. He called it Jaynath Amndalam. In addition to these, during the last part of his life he had also annexed Maldives. Due to these annexations his empire spread all across South India up till river Tungbhadra and entire Maldives. Raj Raja was a Shiv and he took the title of Shivapad Shekhar.
11. (b) Tolkappiyam second is the only available ancient text of Sangam literature. It is written by Tolkappiyar. It is a text on grammar. It has been written in the form of rules. Apart from grammar, this text also contains rules of Dharma (way of life), Artha (meaning of life), Kaam and Moksha.
12. (c) Use of surkhi (holes in the walls) was first done by the Sultans of Delhi in their buildings.
13. (c) The battle of Talikota (Rakshasi Tangdi) was fought between Vijaynagara and alliance of Deccan sultanates of Ahmednagar, Golkonda, Bijapur and Bidar on 23rd January 1565. Vijayanagar Empire faced a defeat in this battle. It is also known as the battle of Vannihati.
14. (b) Banda Bahadur (1708-16) was known as Lachchan Dev (Lakshman Dev) in his childhood. He was the first political leader of Sikh. He made his capital at Lohgarh.
15. (a) King Louis XIV ordered his finance minister, Colbert to set up a company in order to establish trade with the east. In 1661, a company called Compan Daren Indes Orientals was formed. It was a full time government body. French East India Company was established during the reign of Louis XIV. It was established in year 1664. Governor Dupley was a successful governor of the company. Count De Lali was another successful governor.
16. (c) Out of the given alternatives, Sir John Shore and Anglo Nepal war is not matched correctly. This battle was fought during the time of Lord Hastings. Lord Cornwallis is connected to permanent settlement. Lord Wellesley is related to subsidiary alliance. Lord Warren Hastings is related to Anglo Maratha war.
17. (d)
18. (d) Fourth Anglo Mysore war fought during the tenure of Lord Wellesley. Tipu Sultan died fighting at the door of fort of Rangapttanam during this war. It was after this war that Lord Wellesley declared “The Empire of east is at our feet now.”
19. (a) Land Holders Society was established in Calcutta in 1938. Prasann Kumar was its secretary in India and William Kambri was its British secretary. Indian leaders included Prasann Kumar, Radhakant Dev and Dwarkanath Tagore. William Adams was connected with British India Society. Anand Mohan Bose was connected to Indian society. Indian Association was established on 26th July 1876 by Surendra Nath Banerjee in Calcutta.
20. (a) According to the proposal of Amritsar session of Indian National Congress in 1919, Mahatma Gandhi selected N. C. kelkar, I. B. Sen to assist in framing new constitution of the party.
21. (a)
22. (a) “critical and free thinking are the twin qualities that a revolutionary must inevitably possess” – it was said by Bhagat Singh.
23. (a) Harijan Sevak Sangh was formerly named All India Anti Untouchability League.
24. (a)
25. (a) Mouna Loa is an active volcano situated in the Hawaii Islands in United States of America.
26. (b) Appalachian mountain is a result of tertiary mountaniziation. It is a result of hashinian movements.
27. (b) Dudhsagar waterfalls is situated in Goa.
28. (d) Venguela current is a cold current in South Atlantic ocean. It originates due to collision of South Atlantic Ocean waves with the coast in South Africa.
29. (d) Chapnala lake is situated in Assam. Koleru Lake Andhra Pradesh. Hamirpur Lake – Bhuj, Kutch district, Gujarat.
30. (d) Osaka is known as Manchester of East. It is an important center for cloth manufacturing in Japan.
31. (a) Black Soil is also known as Regur Soil or cotton soil. It is black because of titaniferus magnetite. It is also known as Tropical Charnozem.
32. (c) Correct chronological order of given states of India in terms of coal reserve is as follows – Jharkhand, Odisha, Chhattisgarh, West Bengal and Madhya Pradesh.
33. (a) Tilaiya Dam is built on river Barakar (Jharkhand). It is a part of Damodar valley project. Panchet Hill Dam is built on river Damodar. Rana Pratap Sagar (Rajasthan) is built on river Chambal. Gandhi Sagar Dam and Jawahar Sagar Dam is also built on this river. Matatila Dam is situated on river Betwa.
34. (c)
35. (d)
36. (a) During the decade of 20012011 India’s population growth rate was 17.7%.
37. (b) Shipkila is in Himachal Pradesh. Nathula Sikkim, Zozila – Jammu & Kashmir. Lipu Lekh is not in Arunachal Pradesh but Uttarakhand,
38. (b)
39. (b).
40. (d) NABARD was formed on the recommendation of Shiv Ramancommittee on 12th July 1982. At present they are the premier organization in rural financing.
41. (b)
42. (c) Land Development Bank in India was set up in 1929 in Madras for the first time in India. This bank suffices for long term financial necessities of farmers.
43. (b) Indira Gandhi took the first step towards nationalization of private banks in India. On 19th July 1969, she nationalized 14 such bnaks that had deposit more than 50 crores.
44. (b) Headquarters of Allahabad Bank is located in Kolkata. Headquarters of overseas bank is situated in Chennai. Headquarters of Industrial Development Bank of India is located in Lucknow, not Mumbai.
45. (c) Long term goal of commerce ministry is to make India a major force in trade by 2020.
46. (b)
47. (a) Lord Mountbatten was the last Governor General of India. He was also the first Governor General of independent India. He announced the 3rd June. In this plan it was announced that India would gain freedom on 15th August 1947. C. Rajagopalachari was the second Governor General and first Indian Governor General of India.
48. (a)
49. (d) India’s largest rubber producing state is Kerala. Tamil Nadu and Karnataka are at second and third positions respectively.
50. (c) Article 21 of the constitution of India reads – “No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to a procedure established by law.” Article 11 of the constitution empowers the Parliament to frame laws regarding citizenship within the purview of established laws. Article 16 grants for equality in opportunity for public employments. Article 26 mentions the freedom to practice and follow religion of one’s own choice.
51. (d) The term Hindu in Article 25 also refers to the followers of Sikhism, Jainism and Buddhism.
52. (b) Equal pay for equal work is not a fundamental right. It is a part of Directive Principles of State Policies established by the constitution of India. Article 39 D clearly mentions that the wages aid to a man and a woman should be equal for equal amount of work. Equal Remuneration Act was passed in 1976 and if the states differentiates in this then court can use the powers given to it by Article 32 in order to get it implemented.
53. (b) 10 new fundamental duties were added for Indian citizens in the constitution of India through 42nd constitutional amendment act 1976. It was done on the recommendation of Swarn Singh committee. They were added in Article 51 A of the constitution. Article 51 A is the one and only article in part 4A of the constitution. After 86th constitutional amendment Act 2002, total number of fundamental duties is 11.
54. (c) Fundamental Duties have been stated in Article 51 A in Part 4A of the Constitution of India. As per the question, fundamental duties are as follows –
- Respecting the National flag
- Promoting the feeling of brotherhood among all the people of India and preserving our culture and monuments of historical importance.
- Respecting one’s parents and teachers is a moral duty. It is not a fundamental duty stated in the constitution.
55. (d) Human dignity is the main force behind the idea of human rights. It implies to a dignified way of life or to live with dignity.
56. (b) The concept of concurrent list in Indian constitution has been borrowed from Australia. Major ideas in Indian constitution that are borrowed from the Australian constitution are as follows Language of the preamble, center – state relations and distribution of powers, parliamentary prerogatives.
57. (b) Advocate General of the state is the legal advisor of the state. The governor of any state shall appoint a person who is eligible to become a judge in high court as the advocate general of the state. He shall receive the salary and wages as decided by the governor.
58. (c) Provisions of emergency has been mentioned from Article 352 to 360 in part 18 of the Constitution of India. The president can proclaim three kinds of emergency on the advice of council of ministers. They are – (i) Imposed in case of war or external aggression or armed revolt (Article 352). (ii) Emergency due to break down of constitutional machinery in any state (Article 356). (iii) Financial emergency (Article 360) for a minimum period of two months.
59. (b) The Chief Justice of Supreme Court of India shall temporarily discharge the duties of President of India if the office of latter as well as the Vice President of India falls vacant at the same time.
60. (d) In a Presidential form of government, President is the head of the state. President is free to appoint his council of ministers. He cannot dissolve the legislature.
61. (d) The decision weather a bill is a money bill or not shall be taken by the speaker of Lok Sabha under the provisions of Article 110 (3). His decision is also deemed final.
62. (c) According to Article 93 of the constitution of India, the Lok Sabha shall elect a speaker and deputy speaker from within its members. The speaker tenders his resignation to deputy speaker and vice versa. The speaker does not swear in as the speaker but as a member of the house.
63. (c) According to Article 153 of the constitution of India, there shall be one governor for one state, but an individual can be appointed as the governor of two or more states at the same time. The Chief Justice of High Court of the state administers the oath of office to the governor (according to Article 159).
64. (c) Normal tenure of a Vidhan Sabha is five years but the Governor can dissolve it earlier under special circumstances through special powers granted to him. Vidhan Sabha can have minimum 60 and maximum 500 members.
65. (d) Public Finance is a study of financial activities of the government under which revenue and expenditure of the government is examined.
66. (d) National Social Security Fund is not a part of employment generation and poverty eradication schemes of the government. Other three are a part of such schemes.
67. (c) Important factors causing unemployment are – rapid population growth, lack of skill and poor management of human resource. An increase in per capita income indicates and improvement in lifestyle of an individual.
68. (b) Correct pairing is as under –
A. First five year plan – 1951-56
B. Third five year plan – 1961-66
C. Fourth five year plan – 1969-74
D. Sixth five year plan – 1980-85
69. (d) RBI has accepted to open payment banks on the recommendation of More committee.
70. (c) Radiators are used to cool down the engines in automobiles.
71. (b) Thermal ionization is a concept devised by M. N. Saha. C. V. Raman is known for Raman Effect and Homi Jahangir Bhabha was renowned nuclear scientist.
72. (c) A rocket follows the third law of Newton which states conservation of momentum. It is an example in which the mass of an object keeps changing as the gas is continuously erupting from the rocket.
73. (b) The internal pressure of a soap bubble is greater than the atmospheric pressure. The size of a soap bubble is large because the surface tension decreases as the soap dissolves in water whereas at the same time atmospheric pressure increases.
74. (a) Water is the best conductor of heat whereas ice is the worst conductor of heat. Joule is the measuring unit of heat. Heat itself is a form of energy. This heat is transferred from one object to another due to temperature difference between them.
75. (c) When light travels to a rare medium from a dense medium, it deviates from its path due to refraction. This phenomenon is known as total internal reflection. 100 % reflection takes place in case of total internal reflection and no refraction takes place during this.
76. (a)
77. (d) The colour of a light is determined by its wavelength.
78. (b) The aqua rezia, used by the goldsmiths is manufactured by mixing Nitric acid and hydrochloric acid (HNO, + HCl) in a proportion of 3:1.
79. (a) Cu T is a type of contraception. Its installation can cause blood loss.
80. (c) Human body contains mostly oxygen (65%). Oxygen is also known as life gas. Air contains around 20.29% oxygen.
81. (a) According to question, wrought iron contains more iron (3.5 to 4.5%) as compared to cast iron, steel or mixed alloys.
82. (c) Mercury is a molten metal which is found in liquid state at normal temperature.
83. (d) Solid carbon dioxide is also known as dry ice. Different forms of carbon in which the alignment of atoms is different are known as allotropes of carbon.
84. (b) Divers keep a tank of oxygen and helium at their back while diving.
85. (c) In medical terms “golden hour” is used in heart attacks. Normally it is related to medical emergency.
86. (a) Beta blocker is a medicine used to prevent heart stroke.
87. (c) The instrument used to record brain activities is called Electro Encephalograph (EEG). Whereas, Electro Cardiograph (ECG) is used to record the movements of the heart. Stethoscope records a lungs.
88. (c) Oral Submucous Fibrosis is caused due to gutkha chewing. Consuming too much gutkha causes this disease. In this disease the opening of mouth decreases.
89. (b) Bone Mineral density is a test used to examine for osteoporosis. In this the amount of calcium is determined by x-ray. Low bone density is also known as osteopenia.
90. (a) Apple has a major importance for heart patients. Its consumption causes a decrease in total cholesterol. Apple contains enough minerals among which sodium and potassium are important to regulate the heart beat. It also keeps high blood pressure in check.
91. (b) The determination of internal disease in a human body is conducted by endoscopy. Cardiograph – heart; Gyroscope – angular movement and Crescograph measures growth of plants.
92. (d) The carbonic compound that is found in largest amount natural is cellulose. It is a kind of protein. Its chemical formula is (CHO). It is a polysaccharide.
93. (*) None of the given alternatives is true because Phonometer is used to measure sound.
94. (c) Uranium, Thorium and Plutonium are used as nuclear fuel but calcium is not found in free state in nature. Calcium is an important component of bones, egg shells and shells. Calcium is the most abundant component of milk.
95. (b)
96. (a)
97. (b)
98. (a)
99. (b)
100. (a)
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