Model Question Paper – 13

Model Question Paper – 13

1. Navdatoli is situated in which of the following states ?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Chhattisgarh
(d) Madhya Pradesh
2. Mountain of Ash (rakh ka tila) is related to which of the following Neolithic sites ?
(a) Budiya
(b) Sangan kullu
(c) Kuldihva
(d) Brahmagiri
3. Name the tribe which is not related to panchajana of Rigvedic Aryas ? 
(a) Yadu
(b) Puru
(c) Turvas
(d) Kikat
4. Which Veda calls Sabha and Samiti as two daughters of the king ?
(a) Rigveda
(b) Samveda
(c) Yajurveda
(d) Atharvaveda
5. Which of the following is a source of detailed description of urban administration during the Mauryan era?
(a) Arthashastra by Kautilya
(b) Indica by Megasthenes
(c) Mudrarakshas by Vishakhdutta
(d) Inscriptions by Ashoka
6. Which of the following rulers is credited to be the first to issue gold coins?
(a) Kujula Kadphises
(b) Vima Kadphises
(c) Kanishka I
(d) Huvishka
7. Which of the following classical books were authored during the Gupta era?
(i) Amarkosha
(ii) Kama Sutra
(iii) Meghdootam
(iv) Mudrarakshas
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below –
(a) (i) and (ii) only
(b) (ii) and (iii) only
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
8. Who among the following was the first to decipher Brahmi script ?
(a) A. Cunningham
(b) A. H. Dani
(c) Bluer
(d) James Princep
9. Archieval evidences about Bhagwat Dharma is found in –
(a) Allahabad inscriptions of Samudragupta
(b) Besnagar inscriptions of Heliodorus
(c) Pillar edicts of Skandagupta
(d) Mehrauli edicts
10. Ashoka’s Rummindei pillar edicts are related to –
(a) Buddha’s birth
(b) Buddha’s enlightenment
(c) First sermon by Buddha
(d) Buddha’s death
11. Which god is embossed on Yaudheya coins?
(a) Vasudeva
(b) Shiva
(c) Indra
(d) Kartikeya
12. Which of the following dynasties was founded by Simuka
(a) Chera
(b) Chola
(c) Pandya
(d) Satvahan
13. Who was the founder of Vikramshila Universities?
(a) Gopal
(b) Devapal
(c) Dharampal
(d) Mahendrapal
14. Kalinga Naresha, Kharvel belonged to which of the following dynasties?
(a) Chedi
(b) Kadamba
(c) Kalinga
(d) Haryaka
15. Maluk Das, a religious pet was belonged to – 
(a) Agra
(b) Ayodhya
(c) Kashi
(d) kada
16. After the death of which ruler did historian Badayuni said – “The sultan is free from his subject and the subject is free from its Sultan”?
(a) Alauddin Khilji
(b) Balban
(c) Iltutmish
(d) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq
17. Arrange the following names in chronological order and choose the correct answer from the codes given below –
(i) Changez Khan
(ii) Mahmud Ghaznavi
(iii) Muhammad Ghori
(iv) Taimur
Codes:
(a) (i), (ii), (iii) (iv)
(b) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)
(c) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii)
(d) (iv), (i), (ii), (iii)
18. Which one of the following is the author of Ramchandrika and Rasikapriya?
(a) Keshava
(b) Matiram
(c) Raskhan
(d) Senapati
19. In which of the following round table conference, Congress participated for the first time ? 
(a) First round table conference
(b) Second round table conference
(c) Third round table conference
(d) None of the above.
20. Who was the founder of Brahmo Samaj of India ?
(a) Devendranath Tagore
(b) Ishwarchandra Vidyasagar
(c) Keshavachandra Sen
(d) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
21. Match Column I and Column II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below – 
Column I – Column II
Uranium Zone – State
A. Domaisal       1. Rajasthan
B. Lambapur     2. Karnataka
C. Rohel             3. Meghalaya
D. Gogi              4. Andhra Pradesh
Code:
A  B   C  D
(a)     3   4   1  2
(b)     2   1   3  4
(c)     1   3   4  2
(d)     4   2   3  1
22. Match Column I and Column II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below –
Column I – Column II
A. Digha                      1. Tamil Nadu
B. Gopalpur on Sea   2.West Bengal
C. Kalamut                 3. Odisha
D. Gogi –                     4. Goa
Code:
A  B   C  D
(a)     1   2   4  3
(b)     2   3   4  1
(c)     2   1   3  4
(d)     4   3   2  1
23. Which of the following states of India has international boundary on its three sides?
(a) Assam
(b) Nagaland
(c) Tripura
(d) West Bengal
24. Which of the following is not situated at the coasts of Arabian Sea ?
(a) Kuwait
(b) Oman
(c) Qatar
(d) United Arab Emirates
25. Forest Research Institute is situated in –
(a) Hyderabad
(b) Nainital
(c) Solan
(d) Dehradun
26. Central Arid Zone Research Institute (CAZRI) is located in – 
(a) Ahmadabad
(b) Bangalore
(c) Hyderabad
(d) Jodhpur
27. Idukki, an important cardamom producing place is located in – 
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Kerala
(c) Odisha
(d) Tamil Nadu
28. Dandakaranya is located in
(a) Chhattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh
(b) Chhattisgarh and Odisha
(c) Jharkhand and Odisha
(d) Andhra Pradesh and Jharkhand
29. Shakkar Nagar, an important sugar producing city is located in –
(a) Haryana
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Uttar Pradesh
30. Which of the following is not matched correctly ?
(a) Jawahar Sagar – Rajasthan
(b) Nagarjun Sagar – Andhra Pradesh
(c) Shiva Samudram – Kerala
(d) Gandhi Sagar – Madhya Pradesh
31. Which of the following tiger reserves of India is spread across two states?
(a) Kanha
(b) Manas
(c) Pench
(d) Sariska
32. World’s largest coconut producing country is –
(a) Brazil
(b) India
(c) Indonesia
(d) Philippines
33. Munga is a variety of silk which is produced only in India in – 
(a)Assam
(b) Bihar
(c) Karnataka
(d) Tamil Nadu
34. India’s only tin producing state is –
(a) Chhattisgarh
(b) Jharkhand
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Odisha
35. Which of the following enjoys a monopoly in production of chromites ?
(a) Bihar
(b) Karnataka
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Odisha
36. Match Column I and Column II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below – 
Column I – Column II
(Mineral) – (Leading producer)
A. Iron Ore –       1. Odisha
B. Copper –         2. Karnataka
C. Gold –              3. Rajasthan
D. Asbestos –      4. Andhra Pradesh
Code:
A  B   C  D
(a)     1   3   2  1
(b)     4   2   3  1
(c)     1   4   2  3
(d)     2   1   4  2
37. Where is Namchik Namphuk coalfields located ?
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Assam
(c) Mizoram
(d) Nagaland
38. The state where highest number of paper mills is located is –
(a) Karnataka
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) West Bengal
39. Obra Thermal power palnt was established by the assistance of which of the following countries ?
(a) America
(b) Germany
(c) Japan
(d) Russia
40. Which of the following pairs is not matched correctly ?
River – Country
(a) Niper – Ukraine
(b) Po – Italy
(c) Rhine – Germany
(d) Rhone – Spain
41. Taklamakan desert is located in –
(a) Afghanistan
(b) China
(c) Kazakhstan
(d) Mongolia
42. River Rio Grande demarcates the boundary between –
(a) Canada and United States of America
(b) Mexico and United States of America
(c) Mexico and Guatemala
(d) Guatemala and Honduras
43. Prime meridian passes through –
(i) Algeria
(ii) France
(iii) Nigeria
(iv) Portugal
Choose your answer from the codes given below:
(a) (i) and (ii) only
(b) (ii) and (iii) only
(c) (iii) and (iv) only
(d) (i) and (iii) only
44. India’s population is what percentage of world population ? 
(a) 6 percent
(b) 16 percent
(c) 26 percent
(d) 36 percent
45. Which of the following is not a million population city in Madhya Pradesh?
(a) Bhopal
(b) Gwalior
(c) Indore
(d) Jabalpur
46. Which of the following are two states have more than 14 urban population of the country ? 
(a) Uttar Pradesh and West Bengal
(b) Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh
(c) Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu
(d) Maharashtra and Uttar Pradesh
47. Match Column I and Column II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below.
Column I – Column II
Type of – Chief characteristics
organization – teristics
A. Sole trader         1. Large number of risk takers
B. Partnership      2. Growth of weaker section
C. Cooperatives     3. Contractual agreement
D. Public sector –   4. Unlimited responsibility limited company
Code:
A  B   C  D
(a)     1   2   3  4
(b)     4   3   2  1
(c)     4   2   3  1
(d)     1   3   2  4
48. Cost at which government purchases food products is called –
(a) limited price
(b) market price
(c) minimum support price
(d) production cost
49. Nitrogen in urea is found in which form?
(a) Amide
(b) Ammonia
(c) Nitrate
(d) Nitrite
50. Which organic acid is largely found in grapes?
(a) Acetic acid
(b) Citric acid
(c) Malic acid
(d) Tartaric acid
51. What is the reason for yellow colour in cow’s milk ?
(a) Fat
(b) Lipase
(c) Protein
(d) Riboflavin
52. Why is tomato red in colour ? 
(a) Capsin
(b) Lycopene
(c) Xanthophylls
(d) None of the above
53. Golden paddy is abundant in – 
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin B
(c) Vitamin C
(d) Vitamin D
54. Arrange the following countries in descending order with respect to their wheat production and choose the correct answer from the codes given below.
(i) China
(ii) India
(iii) Russia
(iv) United States of America
Codes:
(a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(b) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)
(c) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
(d) (iv), (i), (ii), (iii)
55. Which of the following statements regarding Brahmos is not true?
(a) It is a supersonic cruise missile
(b) It is built in India with the help of Russia
(c) It was successfully tested in the Bay of Bengal on 22nd March 2010
(d) It has a flight range of 400 km.
56. B O D in river Ganga is found in highest amount in –
(a) Between Haridwar and Kanpur
(b) Between Kanpur and Allahabad
(c) Between Allahabad and Patna
(d) Between Patna and Hazipur
57. Global warming is rising due to rise in concentration of which of the following in the atmosphere ? 
(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Nitrous oxide
(c) Ozone
(d) Sulfur dioxide
58. Which of the following petitions studies the working of subordinate courts?
(a) Quo Warranto
(b) Mandamus
(c) Certiorari
(d) Habeas Corpus
59. Which of the following is true ?
(a) Social equality is not a part of the constitution
(b) Social equality was already present in the country
(c) Social equality is mentioned in the constitution
(d) None of the above
60. The power to issue ordinance by the President is taken from –
(a) Government of India Act 1919
(b) Government of India Act 1935
(c) Government of India Act 1909
(d) Indian Independence Act 1947
61. Who can bring impeachment motion against the President of India on grounds of violation of the constitution?
(a) Chief Justice of India
(b) Vice President of India
(c) Lok Sabha Speaker
(d) Both houses of parliament
62. Power to carve out a new state lies with the –
(a) Parliament
(b) President
(c) Council of Ministers
(d) State Reorganization Commission
63. Which of the following rights can not be abolished or limited even during national emergency ?
(a) Right to reside and settle in any part of India
(b) Individual freedom and right to live
(c) Right to freely travel across the length and breadth of India
(d) Right to work and earn livelihood
64. Whom does the Speaker of Lok Sabha address his resignation to –
(a) Prime Minister of India
(b) President of India
(c) Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
(d) Vice President of India
65. Who is also known as the guardian of public fund?
(a) President of India
(b) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(c) Parliament
(d) Council of Ministers
66. Lok Sabha Speaker can be removed by –
(a) A resolution passed by the majority of total number of members of Lok Sabha
(b) Two third majority of Parliament
(c) Presidential order
(d) A simple majority of Parliament
67. Which of the following is not an All India Service?
(a) Indian Forest Services
(b) Indian Police Services
 (c) Indian Economic Services
(d) Indian Administrative Services
68. Finance Commission is constituted every –
(a) Three years
(b) Two years
(c) Five years
(d) Four years
69. Which of the following documents is related to India ?
(a) Green paper
(b) White Paper
(c) Yellow paper
(d) Blue paper
70. All the executive powers of the Constitution of India is contained in –
(a) Prime Minister of India
(b) Council of Ministers
(c) President of India
(d) Parliament
71. The salary and wages of judges of High Courts of India is determined by –
(a) Wage Commission constituted by the President of India
(b) Law Commission of India
(c) Parliament
(d) Council of Ministers
72. Which of the following started the trend of Public Interest Litigation (PIL)?
(a) Act passed by the parliament
(b) Constitutional amendment
(c) Judicial initiative
(d) None of the above
73. The Attorney General of India is the judicial advisor of whom among the following?
(a) President of India
(b) Prime Minister of India
(c) Lok Sabha
(d) Government of India
74. Which of the following courts of India is also referred to as the custodians of records ?
(a) Only High Courts
(b) Only Supreme Court of India
(c) Supreme Court as well as the High Courts of India
(d) District Courts
75. Who conducts the election for state legislative assemblies in India?
(a) Chief election commissioner of India
(b) State Election Commission
(c) Election Commission of India
(d) Governor of the state
76. Under the provisions of which article, amendments in constitution are made?
(a) Article 368
(b) Article 360
(c) Article 356
(d) Article 352
77. Which of the following committees made the recommendation to grant constitutional status to Panchayati Raj?
(a) L. M. Singhvi committee
(b) Balwant Rai Mehta committee
(c) Rao committee
(d) Ashok Mehta committee
78. The decision to conduct Panchayat election in india under the provisions of Constitution of India is taken by –
(a) Union government
(b) State government
(c) Election Commission of India
(d) State Election Commission
79. Which of the following amendments made a law against defection for the first time?
(a) 54th constitutional amendment
(b) 53rd constitutional amendment
(c) 52nd constitutional amendment
(d) 51st constitutional amendment
80. Ramsar covention was related to the conservation/preservation of which of the following ?
(a) Bio fuels
(b) Forests
(c) Wet lands
(d) Arid lands
81. Which of the following bio sphere reserved zones in India is recognized by the United Nations? Choose your answer from the codes given below.
(i) Nilgiri
(ii) Nanda Devi
(iii) Manas
(iv) Simlipal
Codes:
(a) (i) and (ii) only
(b) (ii) and (iii) only
(c) (iii) and (iv) only
(d) (i) and (iv) only
82. What is a biochip ?
(a) RNA
(b) DNA
(c) RNA as well as DNA
(d) RNA, DNA and Protein
83. AIDS virus carries –
(a) DNA + Protein
(b) RNA + DNA
(c) RNA + Protein
(d) DNA only
84. Which of the following is spread by protozoa?
(a) Malaria
(b) Cholera
(c) Jaundice
(d) None of the above
85. Which of the following is affected in case of blood clotting ?
(a) Vitamin K
(b) Vitamin A
(c) Vitamin B
(d) Vitamin C
86. Itai-itai disease is caused by the long term poisoning of which of the following?
(a) Mercury
(b) Nickel
(c) Cadmium
(d) Lead
87. The pulse rate in a human body –
(a) is higher than heart beat
(b) is slower than the heart beat
(c) is equal to heart beat
(d) is free from the rate of heart beat
88. Which of the following is caused by excess consumption of alcohol ?
(a) Appendicitis
(b) Virus in liver
(c) Gallbladder stone
(d) Liver neurosis
89. Which of the following parasites is responsible for spread of malaria in 65% patients?
(a) P. Maleri
(b) P. Whywax
(c) P. Falsiperam
(d) P. owel
90. Strongest muscle in human body is found in –
(a) Jaws
(b) Thighs
(c) Neck
(d) Hands
91. Which of the following minerals is vital to control heart beat ?
(a) Sodium
(b) Potassium
(c) Iron
(d) Sulfur
92. Hydrophobia is caused by which of the following?
(a) bacteria
(b) fungus
(c) virus
(d) protozoa
93. Gujarat is a leading producer of which of the following crops?
(a) Wheat
(b) Sugarcane
(c) Bajra
(d) Coconut
94. What is the maximum depth that is trevelled by sunlight in fresh sea water?
(a) 220 m
(b) 400 m
(c) 600 m
(d) 800 m
95. Which of the following national highways does not pass through Jharkhand?
(a) National Highway 12
(b) National Highway 23
(c) National Highway 32
(d) National Highway 33
96. When does retreat of monsoon begin in Jharkhand ?
(a) Mid September
(b) Mid October
(c) Last week of September
(d) Last week of October
97. “Atmosphere of Jharkhand is similar to continental atmosphere in characteristics”. This statement can be attributed to which of the following geographical feature ? 
(a) Position of Tropic of Cancer
(b) Position of Himalaya
(c) Land locked
(d) Equator
98. Who was the founder of Naga dynasty in Chhotanagpur region?
(a) Fani Mukut Rai
(b) Pratap Rai
(c) Bhim Karna
(d) Durjan Shah
99. Who propagated the following about himself – “god has granted him the magical powers to cure any diseased person. He will make his followers impregnable and the bullets coming from the enemy will turn into water.
(a) Birsa Munda
(b) Siddhu
(c) Bhagirath Manjhi
(d) Jatra Manjhi
100. Who among the following declared – “Munda raj has started and the queens rule is now over”
(a) Siddhu
(b) Bhagirath Manjhi
(c) Birsa Munda
(d) Jatra Bhagat

Answers with Explanation

1. (d) Navdatoli is situated in Khargon district of Madhya Pradesh across Maheshwar on the southern banks of river Narmada. It is situated at a distance of 80 km from the city of Indore. At present, navdatoli archeological site is situated at a distance of 3 km from Navdatoli village. This site was excavated under H.D. Sankalia from 1952 to 1957. Flat axe made of copper, fishing rod, knife and bangles were found at this site. People belonging to this place cultivated millet, wheat, paddy, mung, urad, masur and pea. They also rewared cattle like cow, ox, buffalo, sheep and goats. The distinct pottery of this place were light red or pink in colour upon which black pictorial representation were embossed. This pottery art was discovered by the excavation of this site.
2. (b) Mountain of ash (rakh ka tila) has been found at a Neolithic archeological site in sangan kullu, in Bellari district near Mysore in Karnataka. Scholars believe that animal dung was accumulated and burnt here which had caused the formation of this mountain of ash. Budihal is also an archeological site which belongs to middle stone age where such a mountain of ash has been found. Evidence of human grave and paddy cultivation has been found in Brahmagiri and Kuldihva respectively.
3. (d) Aryas have been called Panchjanya in Rig-Veda because of their five tribes. These tribes were as follows – Anu, Puru, Turvas, Yadu and Durhay.
4. (d) Council (Samiti) and Court (Sabha) has been called as two daughters of the king in Atharvaveda. Sabha was the council of eminent persons of the state and samiti was the group of common people of state. Its chief was called Ishan. Apart from sabha and samiti, vidath was also a social group which was the council of ancient Aryas.
5. (b) Megasthenes, the ambassador of king Seleucas resided in the court of Chandragupta Maurya from 304 BC to 299 BC. He presented a detailed analysis of administration of Patliputra during that time. In his book Indica, he writes – town is managed by a council (nagarsabha) which consisted of 6 councils of 5 members each. Corporation works were distributed among these councils. Nagrak was the chief of nagarsabha who was known as “Pour’. For better administration, town was divided in different wards and the chief officer of ward was known as ‘Sthanik’.
6. (b) Vima Kadphises was a great ruler of Kushana dynasty. He ruled between 65 AD and 78 AD. He issued gold and copper coins. His coins were embossed with titles like ‘Maharaja’, ‘Rajadhiraj’, ‘Mahishwar’, ‘Sarvalokeshwar’ ect. His coins contained Persian script on one side and Kharoshthi script on the other side. Images of Shiva, Nandi, trident etc. are also engraved on his coins that indicate him being a follower of Shaivism.
7. (c) How were the Mahajanpads formed by joining small janpads in 6th century BC? We find their details in Buddhist scriptures. These 16 mahajanpadas as mentioned in agantur section are as follows – Anga, Magadha, Kashi, Koshal, Vajji, Malla, Chedi, Vatsa, Kuru, Panchal, Matasya, Sursen, Ashkmak, Avabti, Gandhar, Kamboj. Bhawati Sutra mention these Mahajanpads as – Anga, Banga. Magadha, Malay, Malav, Achch, Vachchh, Kutch, Paadh, Ladh, Vajji, Moli, Kashi, Koshal, Havaas, Samutar. Thus in both these sections Anga, Magadha, Vatsa, Vajji, Kashi and Koshal are common.
8. (d) British scholar, James Princep was the first person to study Brahmi script. Joseph Tiefenthaler was the first person to discover Ashoka Pillar in 1750 AD but James Princep was the first person to study Ashoka’s inscription in 1837.
9. (b) Besnagar inscriptions of Heliodorus are the most ancient evidence related to Bhagwat Dharma. A Garuda inscription has been founded and Chaturvyuh Upasna has been mentioned there. Sankarshan Praddyumn, Samb and Anirudh has been mentioned there.
10. (a) Rummindei inscriptions are the evidence of Asoka’s inclination towards Buddhism. According to it, after completion of 20 years of his coronation, Ashok himself visited the tarai in Nepal and the entry tax was abolished whereas some scholars believe that he changed the tax to 1/8 of initial value because that was the place where Mahatma Buddha was born.
11. (d) Yaudheya people belonged to the warrior clan and issued coins in the name of Yaudheyanam. Yaudheyanam coins of third century have been found in their place of origin between Satluj Yamuna in Kangra, Dehradun, Delhi, Saharanpur etc. “Yaudheya ganasya jaya” was embossed on one side and image of Kartikeya was embossed on the other side. Generally mention of Yaudheya is found in Arjunayanas. Somdeva and Pushpdunt have explained the bravery of these people and believe Kartikeya to be their deity.
12. (d) Satvahnas have been called Andhrabhrit or Andhra Jatiya in Puranas. This dynasty was founded by a person named Simuk in around 60 BC by assassinating Susharma of Kanva dynasty. Most of the information about Simuk is found in the inscriptions of Nanghat. Puranas have called Simuk by names like -Sindhu, Shishuk, Shiprak and Vishal.
13. (c) Dharampal is regarded as one of the greatest rulers of India. He took the titles like ‘Parambhattarak’, ‘Maharajadhiraj Parmeshwar’. He organized a grand court in Patliputra. He was a Buddhist himself and built the famous Buddhist monastery at Vikramshila. He also built the Sompur monastery. Although he was a Buddhist, he was also very tolerant for other religions and also framed policies with the same intention. He nurtured the varnashram and ensured the following of Shashtra rules. Statue of Chaturmukh Mahadev was also founded in Bodh Gaya during his time. During his reign Dhiman and Bitpal started new art faculties.
14. (a) Maharaj Kharwel became the Prince at the age of 15 years and was coroneted at the age of 24. Kharwel belonged to Chedi dynasty, third dynasty of Kalinga. Karwel is also known as Era, maharaja, Mahameghvahan and Kalingdhipati.
15. (d) Maluk Das was born in 1574 AD in contemporary Kada province. Akbar was the ruler at that time where as he died in 1682 during the reign of Aurangzeb. He was a saint with family. His father was called Sundardas Khatri. He wrote many poems. Gyanparoksha, Ratankhan, Gyanbodha etc. are written in Awadhi and Braj language. People till quote his famous couplet -python does not serve any body, birds do not do any work, Malukdas says that Rama is the provider for everyone.
16. (d) Sultan Muhammad bin Tughlaq died in old age while crushing the revolt of Sindh (Thatta) in 1351 AD. Historian Badayuni wrote – “The sultan is free from his subject and the subject is free from its Sultan” after his death.
17. (b) Mahmud Ghaznavi’s first attack took place in 1001 AD on Hindu king Jayapal whereas Muhammad Ghori’s first attack was carried out in 1175 AD in Multan. At that time it was ruled by a Muslim ruler belonging to Karmathi cast. Changez Khan attacked on the North West frontier of India in Sindh during the reign of Iltutmish in 1221 AD but he had to return after that. Taimur had attacked in 1228 during the downfall of tughlaq dynasty in 1398 AD. Thus alternative b is correct.
18. (a) Renowned poet of Ritikal, Acharya Keshava Das Orchha was the friend, royal poet and minster of Maharaja Indra Singh Deva. He was born in 1560 and died around 1601 AD. Some of his famous creations are Rasikpriya, Ramchandrika, Kavipriya, Ratanbavani, Virsinghdev Charit, Vigyangita, Jahangir Jaschandrika, Nakh Sikha and Chhandamala.
19. (b) Second round table conference was held between 7th September 1931 and 1st December 1931 in London. Mahatma Gandhi participated in this conference as the only representative from the Congress party. Right wing leader Winston Churchill criticized the British government by saying that the British Government is talking to a traitor beggar with equality. Finally this round table conference was declared to be over on 1st December due to communal protests and Mahatma Gandhi came to Bombay empty handed. Upon reaching India he said – “It is true that I have returned empty handed but I am satisfied that I did not let down the mast which was given to me and I did not compromise with its dignity.” In this very conference Madam Mohan Malviya and Annie Besant took part at their own cost.
20. (c) Later Devendranath and Keshava Chandra Sen parted ways as they carried different opinions on the functionality of the Samaj. Devendra was an advocate of slow and steady pace whereas Sen wanted a fundamental change. Keshava Chandra Sen founded the Indian Brahmo Samaj in 1866 AD. The original institution was named Adi Brahmo Samaj.
21. (a)
22. (b)
23. (c) Tripura is surrounded by Bangladesh from three fronts. Although West Bengal is surrounded by three countries, but the question asks about three sides. Therefore the correct answer will be Tripura.
24. (b) Oman is a country located at the coasts of Gulf of Oman while all the other three are located in the Gulf of Persia.
25. (d) Indian Forest Research Institute has been established in Dehradun in Uttarakhand. Studies regarding development of forests and their classification are carried out in the institute. Officials of the forest department are also trained at this institute.
26. (d) Central Arid Zone Research Institute (CAZRI) is located in Jodhpur. Agriculture Research Institute is located in Hyderabad.
27. (b) Kerala is known as the spice state of India. Cardamom, black pepper and mace has special place in the state. An important spice like cardamom is produced in the Idukki district of Kerala.
28. (b) Dandakaranya region spreads across three states of India – Odisha, Andhra Pradesh and Chhattisgarh. Therefore alternative b is the correct .
29. (b) Shakkar Nagar village which is situated in Nizamabad district near Dharmnagar in Andhra Pradesh has become an important sugar producing center in the country.
30. (c)
31. (c) Pench Tiger Reserve is located Madhya Pradesh and in two states Maharashtra.
32. (c) Indonesia is the largest producer of coconut in the world. It is followed by Philippines and India. Indonesia produces 1.95 crore ton coconut annually while Philippines and India produce 1.83 crore ton and 1.1 crore ton respectively per annum.
33. (a) India is a country that produces three type of silk – Shahtuti, Eri, Tasar and Munga. Golden yellow coloured silk is produced ony in Assam and it is used in making sarees, Asami mekhal and sheets.
34. (a) Used as a tactical ore, metal tin is produced in Chhattisgarh state of India. Chhattisgarh produces 37.69% of total tin produced in India. Largest tin reserve is found in Dantewada district of the state.
35. (d) Largest production of Chromites is found in Odisha. It is an oxide of iron and chromium.
36. (a)
37. (a) Namchik Namphuk coalfields is located in Arunachal Pradesh. Antracite coals are found in these coal fields. It is a high quality coal with 69% carbon content. It does not produce much smoke while burning.
38. (d) Maximum number of paper mills are located in West Bengal. West Bengal produces almost 20% of total paper in India. Around 13 mills in the state produce paper. Titagarh, Raniganj, Nehari, Kakinada, Triveni, Kolkata, Chandrahari, Badanagar and Shirafuli etc. are some important centers. Titagarh is the largest paper producing center of West Bengal but entire India.
39. (d) Obra Thermal power plant in India was set up with the help of Russia. Obra Thermal power plant is located in Sonbhadra district in Uttar radish. It is an enterprise of NTPC.
40. (d)
41. (b)
42. (b) Rio Grande is the fifth largest river of North America. It flows demarcating a boundary between America and Mexico and falls in the Gulf of Mexico after flowing through 2830 km.
43. (a) Prime Meridian passes through France, Spain and Algeria.
44. (b) India is world’s second largest country in terms of population. 16.7% of world’s population resides in India. At present India ranks second after China in terms of population. India’s population is 17.5% of world’s population.
45. (b) According to census 2011, all for have million population.
46. (d) Almost one quarter of India’s urban cities are located in the states of Maharashtra and Uttar Pradesh. In percentage, Goa is the most urbanized state of the country. Largest rural population is found in Haryana.
47. (b)
48. (c) The cost at which the government purchases food grains is known as Minimum Support Price.
49. (c) Nitrogen in urea is present in the form of nitrates. It contains 46% nitrogen which is present in the form of grains. Ammonia nitrate is also found with it. Therefore this mixture is known as urea, ammonium nitrate or UAN mixture.
50. (d) Tartaric acid is found in grapes. Malic acid is found in apple. Citric acid is found in lemon and acetic acid is found in vinegar.
51. (c) The colour of cow’s milk is yellow due to the of kesine which presence is present in the fat which in turn is present in the form of protein.
52. (b) Red colour of tomato, pink shade of raisin and the red colour of watermelon is attributed to the presence of lycopin. Similarly the carrot is orange in colour is due to the presence of carotene.
53. (a) Gold rice is abundant in Vitamin A. It was found by G MM Khush.
54. (b)
55. (d) Brahmos is a cruise missile which is named after rivers Brahmaputra and Mascava. It has a target range of 290 km. can be loaded on a ship as war head and can also be fired from a normal missile launcher.
56. (b) Highest amount of B OD in river Ganga is found in between Kanpur and Allahabad.
57. (a) The threat of global warming is increasing due to rise in the concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
58. (c) Certiorari writ analysis the functions and work procedure of subordinate courts. Certiorari can be issued by higher courts only. A certiorari contains directions against the order passed by lower courts. Mandamus is a judicial remedy in the form of an order from a court to any government, subordinate court, corporation, or public authority, to do some specific act which that body is obliged under law to do, and which is in the nature of public duty, and in certain cases one of a statutory duty. Prohibition writ is issued by higher courts towards any subordinate court or tribunal directing them to stop doing something which is not permitted by law or does not fall under the purview of its rights. This writ can only be issued when the case is on going before the lower court or tribunal and the decision is pending. Once the court passes the order, certiorari writ is issued instead of prohibition. Habeas corpus literally means Present the body. Courts issue this writ towards an individual who has been detained or imprisoned and ask him or her to be presented before it. When this happens the court studies the reason behind the detention or imprisonment. If there are no grounds for his or her détention then he or she is set free.
59. (c) The Constitution of India guarantees right to social equality. Right to equality is the foundational pillar of democracy. Therefore, the Constitution of India grants right to equality before law, Equality in opportunity and social equality.
60. (b) The provision of issue of ordinance by the President of India has been borrowed from Government of India Act 1935. Government of India Act 1936 is the largest source and most influencing on the constitution of India. Federal structure of government, judiciary, governor, emergency powers, Public service commission and most of administrative provisions in the Indian constitution has been borrowed from the Government of India Act 1935. More than half of the provisions of the Indian constitution are either inspired from or similar to Government of India Act 1935.
61. (d) Article 61 of the Constitution of India contains the provisions of impeaching the President of India. This process is judicial as well as executive. Article 61 of the Constitution of India gives only one ground for the initiation of this process which is – an impeachment motion can be brought against the encroachment of constitution by the President of India in any house of the Parliament. Charges will be in the form of proposal and the proposal will be in the form of resolution. This resolution should bear the signature of at least 1/4th of total members of house. 14 days advance notice is mandatory. This resolution should be passed by à 2/3rd majority of the total number of members present and voting on the day. When such a charge is brought by one house the house shall examine the charge. In case such a motion is brought the President shall have the right to be present or be represented in the house. If such a resolution is passed by 2/3rd majority of the members present and voting, the President shall have to vacate the office from the date this resolution becomes effective.
62. (a) Article 3 of the Indian constitution grants the parliament power to carve out a part of state to create two or more new states or to join two or more parts to form a new state. It can increase or decrease the boundary of any state. It can also change the boundary or name of any state.
63. (b) Article 352 of the Constitution of India contains the provision that if the President is ascertained by a written information from the council and he is satisfied that a grave emergency exists whereby the security of India or of any part of the territory thereof is threatened, whether by war or external aggression or armed rebellion, he may, by Proclamation, made a declaration to that effect in respect of the whole of India or of such part of the territory. He can make this proclamation on various grounds. It is expected that every proclamation of emergency shall be brought before both the houses of Parliament for scrutiny and it shall cease to exist after the completion of one month from the date of proclamation by the President if it is not passed from both the houses of parliament. But if a proclamation is passed from both the houses of parliament it can remain operative for a period of 6 months if the President does not cancel it earlier by bringing in another order. Article 359 authorizes the president to suspend the right to move any court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights mentioned in Part 3 of constitution during a National Emergency. But the fundamental rights mentioned in Article 20 and 21 regarding protection from illegal detention will remain an exception.
64. (c) There is a provision for Speaker and Deputy Speaker for the Lok Sabha and Chairman and Deputy Chairman for the Rajya Sabha in the Constitution of India. The Vice President of India is the ex-officio chairman of the Rajya Sabha. The deputy speaker of Lok Sabha discharges the duty of Speaker in his absence. The speaker or deputy speaker of the Lok Sabha vacates his office if he or she ceases to be a member of the house. In the house, the speaker tenders his resignation addressed to the deputy speaker. He can be removed by bringing a resolution but the resolution should be given a notice 14 days in advance and it should be passed by a simple majority of the total number of members present and voting.
65. (b) Comptroller and Auditor General of India is known as the Custodian of the public funds. Article 148 of the Constitution of India contains the provisions regarding the Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
66. (a) Article 94 of the Constitution of India mentions the provisions for vacancy, resignation and removal from office of speaker and deputy speaker of Lok Sabha. Member who can hold the office of speaker or deputy speaker of the house –
(a) If he or she ceases to be member of the house he or she shall vacate the office.
(b) If he or she is a member of the house then he or she can vacate office by tendering his or her resignation addressed to the Speaker if he or she is the deputy speaker or to the deputy speaker if he or she is the speaker.
(c) He or she can be removed by a resolution passed by a majority of total member of house.
67. (c) Article 312 of the Constitution of India contains the provisions about the initiation of All India services. Original constitution carried provisions regarding only two All India Services (1) Indian Administrative Services and (2) Indian Police Services. Later Indian Forest Services was also added to it. Article 312 also envisions All India Judicial Services but till date not step has been taken towards its formation. Article 312 also mentions that if the Rajya Sabha passes resolution by 2/3rd majority of all the members present and voting regarding the formation of a new All India Service establishing that it is in the interest of the nation, then the parliament can form this new All India Service by an act. All India Services are more free to work. Although they work in the states but they are not under the complete control of states.
68. (c) Article 280 of the constitution contains the provisions regarding Finance Commission. It says that The President will constitute a finance commission within two years from the commencement of the Constitution and thereafter at the end of every fifth year or earlier, as the deemed necessary by him/her, which shall include a chairman and four other members. Parliament may by law determine the requisite qualifications for appointment as members of the commission and the procedure of selection. The commission is constituted to make recommendations to the president about the distribution of the net proceeds of taxes between the Union and States and also the allocation of the same among the States themselves. It is also under the ambit of the finance commission to define the financial relations between the Union and the States. They also deal with the devolution of unplanned revenue resources.
69. (b)
70. (c) Article 52 of the Constitution of India declares that there shall be a President of India and Article 53 declares that all executive powers will rest in the President of India. All the execution powers of Union are expressed through the President. Legislative powers are primarily contained in the parliament in the center and state legislative assemblies in the state.
71. (c) Article 125 of the Constitution of India states that there shall be paid to the Judges of the Supreme Court such salaries as may be determined by Parliament by law and, until provision in that behalf is so made, such salaries as are specified in the Second Schedule. At present the Chief Justice of Supreme Court draws a salary of Rs 1,00,000 per month while the other judges draw Rs 90,000 per month. It includes a rent free residence, monthly allowance, travel allowance, staff pension etc. other facilities. It can be changed to his disadvantage. car,
72. (c) Public Interest Litigation were started by Judicial initiatives. In its historic judgment about the transfer of judges, 7 judge constitutional bench of Supreme Court passed an order that any individual can approach High Court for any matter under Article 226 even if he is directly not associated with the matter but has enough interest in it. Any individual can also approach the court in matters regarding fundamental rights of those people or group of people who are unable to approach the court due to poverty, coercion, helplessness or any other social or economic drawbacks. This judgment enables any social activist or organization to seek judicial relief in matters of public interest.
73. (d) Attorney General is the law officer of India. This position is distinct because it has been formed by the Constitution of India. A person who is made the attorney general, he or she should be eligible to become the judge of Supreme Court of India. The Attorney General is necessary for giving advice the Government of India in legal matters referred to him. He also performs other legal duties assigned to him by the President of India. Article 76 of the Indian constitution contains the provisions for Attorney General.
74. (c) Supreme Court and High Courts of India are also known as the Court of Records. According to Article 19, the Supreme Court of India is a court of records. A court of record is a court, which they are not to be questioned when they are admitted to be of evidentiary value and are produced before any court. These records are important for its evidentiary nature. When these records are presented before any court their validity can not be questioned. Facts that are included in these records are its detrimental evidence. The court shall have the power to punish for contempt of itself. As the Supreme Court, the High Courts of India are also court of record and have the power to award punishment on rounds of contempt.
75. (c) Election for state assemblies are carried out by the Election Commission of India. Article 324 of the Constitution of India grants provisions for the superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of the electoral rolls for, and the conduct of, all elections to Parliament and to the Legislature of every State and of elections to the offices of President and Vice President held under this Constitution shall be vested in a Commission. Election Commission conducts the following elections in India –
1. Parliament of India
2. Legislaltive assemblies of all the states and union territories
3. President and Vice President of India.
76. (a) Article 368 of the Constitution of India grants constituent power to make formal amendments and empowers Parliament to amend the Constitution. Article 360 of the constitution contains the provisions for financial emergency.. Article 356 of the constitution contains the provisions about the breakdown of constitution in any state. Article 352 of the constitution contains the provisions regarding proclamation of emergency. It states that if the President is satisfied that a grave emergency exists whereby the security of India or of any part of the territory thereof is threatened, whether by war or external aggression or armed rebellion, he may, by Proclamation, made a declaration to that effect in respect of the whole of India or of such part of the territory thereof as may be specified in the Proclamation.
77. (a) Recommendation to grant constitutional status to Panchayti Raj was presented by M. L. Singhvi Committee. In 1956, Balwant Rai Mehta Committee made the recommendation for the formation of panchayati raj. Government accepted their recommendation. Panchayati raj were launched from the state of Rajasthan. 73rd constitutional amendments act 1992 added to the Constitution of India which contains the provisions of Panchayati Raj. This granted constitutional status to the panchayati raj. Laws regarding this have been framed for all states and union territories of India except Jammu & Kashmir, Delhi and Arunachal Pradesh. Nagaland, Meghalaya and Mizoram already had similar provisions in Schedule 5 and 6 in the Indian constitution. Therefore these provisions of the constitution do not apply in these states. Panchayati raj system has been enacted in rest of the country.
78. (d) State election commission conducts the election for panchayati raj under the provisions of Constitution of India. To ensure that these elections are free and fair Article 243 T of the Indian constitution states that the power of preparation of electoral roll, conducting, supervision, monitoring, superintendence shall lie with state election commission.
79. (c) 52nd constitutional amendment act made amendments in Article 101, 102 and 191 of the Constitution of India and added 10th Schedule in it. These amendments were enacted from 1st March 1985. 52nd constitutional amendment states that in case an individual defects from his original party along with other party members and total number of members defecting is not less than 1/3rd of the total members of the party then it shall be deemed that the party has been split and the members will not be disqualified on the grounds of defection. Thus, this law allowed defection on a large scale but prevented it on small scale.
80. (c) In 1971 a multipurpose agreement was signed for conservation of wet lands which is known as Ramsar Convention (Iran). India entered the league in 1982 and the forest and environment ministry is running program for its conservation since 1987. Under this program total 20 wet lands across 13 states has been selected. They are – Kolleru (Andhra Pradesh), Bula (Jammu & Kashmir), Chilka (Odisha), Loktak (Manipur), Bhoj (Madhya Pradesh), Sambhar and Pichola (Rajasthan), Ashtmuri (Kerala), Harike and Kanjli (Punjab), Ujani (Maharashtra), Renuka (Himachal Pradesh), Kambar (Bihar), Naru Sarovar (Gujarat) and Sukhna (Chandigarh).
81. (a) Till date 18 biosphere reserve zones have been established by Government of India. In 1986, first such zone was set up in joint venture of Tamil Nadu, Karnataka and Kerala in Nilgiri. It was followed by setting biosphere reserve zones in Nanda Devi in Uttarakhand and Nokrek in Meghalaya in 1988. Later biosphere reserves have been set up at Sundarvan, Gulf of Mannar, Great Nicobar, Panchmarhi, Kanchenjungha, Agastmalai, Dibru, Saikhova, Dehang – Deband, Simlipal, Kaziranga and Manas etc. UNESCO recognized Nilgiri, Sundarvan, Nanda Devi and Gulf of Mannar biosphere reserves.
82. (c) Bio chip is a chip similar to semiconductor chips in which bio products are used instead of electronic circuit. These bio products are made of RNA, DNA and Protein.
83. (c) AIDS virus is a circular particle of diameter around 11000 mm. This particle is surrounded by two lipid membranes on both sides. These membranes are made of two types of gluco protein – G P 41 and G P 120 which are covered by two kinds of proteins levels – P 18 and P 24. RNA and Reverse tanscriptase are located in the center of the virus which encourages the collection of DNA.
84. (a) Malaria is caused by a protozoa named plasmodium. Infection is carried from infected person to another through female anopheles mosquito. When this mosquito bites and sucks blood of an infected person, it also sucks the plasmodium protozoa. Plasmodium has a life cycle in side the mosquito which lasts for around 8-10 days. When this mosquito bites a healthy person the protozoa is transferred to the person and a gender neutral cycle starts in the body of that human. It infects the blood cells. Cholera is a contagious disease which is caused by the bacteria named Vibrio cholerae and it spreads through houseflies. Jaundice or Hepatitis is a disease which infects the liver. It is caused by virus.
85. (a) Vitamin K is effective in blood clotting. Its chemical name is phylloquinone. It is a blood clotting vitamin which is responsible for the formation of prothombin in the liver. Its deficiency causes the inability to form blood clots thus causing excessive blood loss. It is abundantly found in green vegetables, tomato, cottage cheese etc.
86. (c) Itai-Itai disease is caused by cadmium pollution. If the level of cadmium in the body somehow rises above the safe mark then the person catches this disease. It is a very painful disease of bones and joints. Apart from this, surplus of this element can also cause cancer of liver and lungs. Excess of mercury can cause Minamata disease. Excess of nitrogen in drinking water causes blue berry syndrome. A disease called Black Foot is caused due to excess proximity of arsenic.
87. (c) Human pulse beats rate similar to the heart beat in a human body. Contraction and expansion of heart is collectively known as heart beat. Heart beat of a normal healthy adult human is 72 beats minute. This rate can rise to 180 per beats minute due to physical labour or per exercise. The pulse of a normal, healthy adult human beats 72 times in a minute.
88. (d) Excessive consumption of alcohol causes liver neurosis.
89. (b) Malaria is a disease which is spread by the parasite, plasmodium phloxiperene or plasmodium vywex mosquito. There are nine major species of mosquito. They spread malaria. Major symptoms of this disease are – shivering, dheadache, nausea. This disease is detected by examining the blood cells under a microscope. Patients suffering from malaria can be cured in a few days with proper treatment but if a person bite by P. Phloxiperene mosquito is not treated in time then his condition deteriorates very quickly. In India P. Vywex mosquito is responsible for 65% patients.
90. (a) Strongest muscle in human body is found in jaws. Outer skin and bone system in our body is mostly made up of muscles. Muscles are made up of muscle cells. It is a contracting cell. Human body consists of total 639 muscles. Out of these 180 muscles are found in the back.
91. (b) Potassium controls the heart beat in a human body. It also controls the nervous system. Sodium is effective in controlling the blood pressure. It also maintains the level of water in the body. Iron forms hemoglobin which is the carrier of oxygen in the blood. Deficiency of iron causes a decrease in this capability which is known as Anemia.
92. (c) Hydrophobia or rabies is caused by the biting of rabid dog. It is a virus spread disease. A rabid or mad dog dies within 11 days. If the dog does not die then the human is considered safe. It is deadly viral disease which effects the central nervous system. This is a cent percent fatal disease. This disease is caused by Lyssavirus Type I which generally reaches the blood of human from the saliva of dog after he is bitten. In human this disease is caused by biting of such animal which can carry the rabies virus. Headache, pain in neck, mild fever is some prominent symptoms of this disease. The patient becomes mad and starts barking like a dog in this disease. Anti rabies vaccine should be administered for fourteen days consecutively. This vaccine was discovered by Louis Pasteur. Rabipor and HDV are some modern vaccine developed for the cure of this disease. –
93. (c) Gujarat is a leading producer of millet. Millet is categorized as a coarse food grain. It is normally cultivated in very dry atmosphere. Geographical requirements for cultivation of millet are sandy soil, 50 to 70 cm rainfall, temperature in between 25 to 35 degree centigrade. Rajasthan, Gujarat, Maharashtra, Haryana, Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh are major producer of millet in India.
94. (a) Sun light can go upto a depth of 183 m only inside the sea surface. This water experiences frequent change in temperature therefore alternative (a) is true.
95. (a)
96. (b)
97. (c)
98. (a)
99. (a)
100. (c)

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