Model Question Paper – 14

09/27/2023 Ajit kumar 95 Views 0 Comments

Model Question Paper – 14

1. Maximum rigvedic shlokas are dedicated to

(a) Agni

(b) Indra

(d) Vishnu

2. Who was the author of Shilppadikaram?

(a) Ilango

(b) Parnar

(d) Vishnusamin

3. Vaishanv dharma was made popular in Kamarupa by –

(a) Chaitanya

(b) Nimbark

(d) Shankar Dev

4. The ruler who had in mind the importance of water and was the first to build a lake in Girnar region was –

(a) Chandragupta Maurya

(b) Ashok

(d) Skandgupta

5. A Chalukya inscription bears the date shaka samvat 556 years. What will be its relative date?

(a) 478 AD

(b) 499 AD

(d) 634 AD

6. Which of the following rock caves display Hindu, Buddhist and Jain style of architecture?

(a) Ajanta

(b) Elephanta

(d) Karle

7. Who was the founder of renowned ancient learning center, Vikramshila University?

(a) Kumargupta

(b) Harsha

(d) Lakshman

8. Who among the following passed an order that every man should marry only one woman and he can remarry only if his wife is barren ?

(a) Alaudin Khilji

(b) Shershah

(d) None of the above

9. Who was the Indian ruler contemporary to British Queen Elizabeth I?

(a) Akbar

(b) Shahjahan

(d) Bahadurshah

10. The Jain guru who remained in Akbar’s court for a few years and was awarded the title of Jagadguru was –

(a) Hemchandra

(b) Harivijay Suri

(d) Umaswati

11. Which of the following pairs is matched correctly?

(a) 1849 Annexation of Satara

(b) 1848 Annexation of Punjab

(d) 1855 Annexation of Jhansi

12. Velu Thampi led the revolt against the British in

(a) Kerala

(b) Maharashtra

(d) Telangana

13. Match Column I and Column II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below.

Column I – Column II

(Organization) – (Founder)

A. Revolt Group 1. Ram Prasad Bismil

B. Hindustan Republican Association 2. Chandra Shekhar Azad

C. Hindustan Socialist Republican Association 3. Lala Lajpat Rai

D. Punjab Naujawan Bharat Sabha 4. Bhagat Singh

5. Surya Sen

Code:

A B C D

(a) 1 3 4 5

(b) 3 4 2 1

(d) 5 1 2 4

14. Indian Home Rule Society was started in London by –

(a) Annie Besant

(b) B. G. Tilak

(d) Shyamji Krishna Verma

15. Culmination of Lahore conspiracy case happened by the hanging of –

(i) Ram Prasad Bismil

(ii) Roshan Singh

(iii) Sukhdev

(iv) Rajguru

Choose the answer from the codes given below:

(a) (i) and (ii) only

(b) (i), (ii) and (iv) only

(d) (iii) and (iv) only

16. Foundation of first women’s college in Mumbai was a fruit of labour of whom among the following ?

(a) B. M. Malabari

(b) D. K. Karve

(d) Ramabai

17. In the All India Conference held on 24th February 1922, who brought a censure motion against Mahatma Gandhi for calling off the Non Cooperation Movement ?

(a) K. T. Shah

(b) Bipin Chandra Pal

(d) Dr. Munje

18. Vande Mataram became a slogan for the national movements in India during which of the following movements?

(a) Swadeshi movement

(b) Champaran satyagrah

(d) Non Cooperation movement

19. Who among the following accused the Congress of following the policy of request, plead and oppose?

(a) S. N. Banerjee

(b) V. D. Savarkar

(d) B. G. Tilak

20. Given below is a list of newsletters. Which of the following among them is/are related to Annie Besant ?

(i) New India

(ii) Young India

(iii) Indian People

(iv) Common Wheel

Choose the answer from the codes given below

Codes:

(a) (i) and (ii) only.

(b) (ii) only

(d) (iii) and (iv) only

21. Given below is a list of some places. Name the places where a parallel government was set up during the Quit India Movement ?

(i) Balia

(ii) Satara

(iii) Hazaribagh

(iv) Meerut

(v) Agra

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below.

Codes:

(a) (i) and (ii) only

(b) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

(d) (i), (iii) and (iv) only

22. Match Column I and Column II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below.

Column I – Column II

(Party) – (Founder)

A. Azad Muslim Conference 1. Abdul Gaffar Khan

B. Khaksar Party 2. Allah Baksh

C. Khudai Khidmatgar 3. Allama Mashriqi

D. Krishak Praja Party 4. Fazlul Haq

5. Sikander Hayat Khan

Choose the answer from the codes given below:

Code:

A B C D

(a) 1 3 4 5

(b) 2 3 4 5

(d) 3 2 1 5

23. Match Column I and Column II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below.

Column I – Column II

(movement) – (person)

A. Khilafat movement 1. Bal Gangadhar Tilak

B. Home Rule movement 2. Ali brothers

C. Civil Disobedience movement 3. Nana Patil

D. Quit India movement 4. B. R. Ambedkar

5. Frontier Gandhi

Code:

A B C D

(a) 1 5 3 4

(b) 2 1 5 3

(d) 1 2 4 3

24. Assertion (A): All the important rivers of peninsular India fall in the Bay of Bengal, but Narmada and Tapti fall in the Arabian Sea.

Reason (R): Rivers Narmada and Tapti flow through rift valley.

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below.

Codes:

(a) A and R are both true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) A and R both are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(d) A is false but R is true

25. Largest coffee cultivation zone is found in which of the following places?

(a) Andhra Pradesh

(b) Karnataka

(d) Tamil Nadu

26. Kaushal is a hybrid of which of the following crops ?

(a) grams

(b) cotton

(d) wheat

27. Yellow coloured venal disease found in okra (ladyfinger) is caused due to –

(a) Mahu

(b) White fly

(d) Fungi

28. Redness of apple is due to –

(a) Anthocyanin

(b) Lycopene

(d) Xanthophyll

29. Spongy tissue is a deadly disease affecting which species of mango, thereby causing a decline in its export volume?

(a) Alphonso

(b) Dashahari

(d) Langda

30. Match Column I and Column II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below.

Column I – Column II

Name of state – Hydro power project

A. Jammu & Kashmir 1. Koena

B. Karnataka 2. Salal

C. Maharashtra 3. Sharavati

D. Uttaranchal 4. Tihri

Code:

A B C D

(a) 1 4 2 3

(b) 2 3 4 1

(d) 4 3 1 2

31. Which of the following pairs is not matched correctly ?

(a) Dhalli – Rajhara – Iron Ore

(b) Rakha – Copper

(d) Amarkantak – Bauxite

32. Largest coal fields in India are found in

(a) Andhra Pradesh

(b) Jharkhand

(d) Odisha

33. Match Column I and Column II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below.

Column I – Column II

A. Copper 1. Kochi

B. Gas Plant 2. Aureya

C. Aluminum 3. Korba

D. Petroleum 4. Khetr

Code:

A B C D

(a) 4 2 3 1

(b) 1 2 3 4

(d) 3 4 1 2

34. In India monazite is found in-

(a) Uttar Pradesh

(b) Himachal Pradesh

(d) Kerala

35. Which of the following is not matched correctly ?

(a) Haldia Allahabad – National Waterway

(b) Nasik Pune – National Highway 50

(d) Hyderabad – Headquarter of Central Railway

36. Match Column I and Column II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below.

Column I – Column II

A. Planet 1. Moon

B. Satellite 2. Uranus

C. Comet 3. Mariner

D. Man made satellite 4. Halley

Code:

A B C D

(a) 2 1 4 3

(b) 1 2 3 4

(d) 2 1 3 4

37. If it is midnight on the Indian meridian, it is 6 in the morning at some other place. What will be the position of that place?

(a) 7° 31′ E

(b) 172° 30′ E

(d) 127° 30′ E

38. The title of world’s busiest sea port is awarded to

(a) London

(b) New York

(d) Tokyo

39. Which of the following is matched correctly?

(a) Downs – Tropical grass lands

(b) Steppes – Temperate grass lands

(d) Taiga – Temperate forest

40. Which of the following pairs of layer of atmosphere and its characteristic is not matched correctly ?

(i) Troposphere weather related activities

(ii) Stratosphere ozone layer

(iii) Ionosphere radio signal reflected back towards earth

(iv) Mesosphere polar light

Choose the correct answer from the codes below:

(a) (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv)

(b) (i), (ii) and (iv) only

(d) (ii) and (iii) only

41. According to census 2011, which state has registered maximum population growth rate in the country ?

(a) Meghalaya

(b) Manipur

(d) Bihar

42. According to census 2011, which of the following is the most densely populated state of India ?

(a) Bihar

(b) Kerala

(d) Uttar Pradesh

43. Arrange the following states of India in descending order in terms of their literacy rate. Choose the correct answer from the codes. given below.

(i) Goa

(ii) Kerala

(iii) Maharashtra

(iv) Mizoram

Codes:

(a) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)

(b) (ii), (iv), (i), (iii)

(d) (ii), (iv), (i), (iii)

44. Tribal speaking Khasi and Garo are found in –

(a) Madhya Pradesh

(b) Meghalaya

(d) Assam

45. Which of the following is included in Directive Principles of State Policies ?

(a) State will work towards the preservation and promotion of environment

(b) State will not deny right to equality before law to any individual

(d) Enforcement of untouchability.

46. Which one of the following is not true?

(a) Fundamental duties are a part of fundamental rights

(b) Fundamental duties are not a part of fundamental rights

(d) Article 51 A state 10 fundamental duties for every citizen.

47. Constitution of India grants right against exploitation for which of the following? Choose the correct answer from the codes given below.

(i) Children

(ii) Women

(iii) Scheduled tribes

(iv) Dalits

Code:

(a) Only (i) and (ii)

(b) (i) and (iii) only

(d) (ii), (iii), and (iv)

48. Which constitutional amendment makes a provision that no act made to enforce the directive principles of state policy stated in Article 39 (b) and (c) will not be canceled on the grounds that it limits the scope of rights stated in Article 14 and 19 of the constitution?

(a) 25th constitutional amendment

(b) 28th constitutional amendment

(d) 44th constitutional amendment

49. Which of the following article of the constitution makes provisions for equality opportunity in government jobs to every individual?

(a) Article 15

(b) Article 16 (1) and 16 (2)

(d) Article 16 (3), (4) and (5)

50. Which of the following pairs of article of the Indian Constitution can not be suspended in case an emergency is in force under Article 359 of the constitution?

(a) Article 20 and 21

(b) Article 14 and 15

(d) Article 24 and 25

51. For how long can an individual be put under preventive detention without a trial?

(a) one month

(b) three months

(d) nine months

52. Indian constitution gives the idea of how many types of emergencies?

(a) two

(b) three

(d) one

53. What should be the minimum number of members to bring a no confidence motion against the council of ministers?

(a) 30

(b) 40

(d) 60

54. Article 249 of the Constitution of India is related to –

(a) Emergency powers of the President of India

(b) Dissolution of Lok Sabha

(d) Legislative powers of the parliament regarding state list.

55. The position of Deputy Prime Minister was –

(a) was created by the constitution

(b) was created from means other than constitution

(d) was created through 85th constitutional amendment

56. Which article of the constitution empowers the Supreme Court to review a judgment or order passed by it ?

(a) Article 137

(b) Article 130

(d) Article 138

57. Who makes decision regarding disqualification of members of parliament?

(a) President of India

(b) Related house

(d) President on the advice of election commission

58. Which of the following pairs is not matched correctly ?

(a) Hindu marriage act – 1956

(b) Hindu inheritance act – 1956

(d) Sati abolition act – 1987

59. Which of the following British act was the first to grant a sum of Rs 1 lakh for education in India?

(a) Wood’s Dispatch 1854

(b) Charter Act 1813

(d) Indian Council Act 1892

60. 79th Constitutional amendment act was related to

(a) Center – State relations

(b) Formation of two political parties

(d) Reservation for scheduled cast and scheduled tribes in election for Lok Sabha and Vidhan Sabha for states.

61. Which of the following is not a part of Human Development Index ?

(a) Health and nutrition

(b) Per capita income

(d) Enrolment rate

62. Which of the following is not a process adopted for social security?

(a) Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojna

(b) Skill Development Program

(d) Unorganized Workers Social Security Act 2008

63. National Horticulture Mission was launched during which of the following five year plans ?

(a) 11th five year plan

(b) 10th five year plan

(d) None of the above

64. Which of the following is important factor regarding liabilities of commercial banks in India?

(a) Fixed deposit

(b) Demand deposit

(d) Other credits

65. Agriculture tax in India can be levied by –

(a) State government

(b) Central government

(d) Central and State governments

66. The mirror of a dentist is –

(a) Circular mirror

(b) Concave mirror

(d) Plain mirror

67. Two pins attached to one end of a magnet can never be perpendicular to each other. This is because –

(a) Their heads are not completely round

(b) Their heads are round in shape

(d) None of the above reasons

68. A breeder reactor is one –

(a) which does not require the fission fuel for reaction.

(b) which brings only heavy water. in use

(d) none of the above

69. What kind of mirror is used in a search light ?

(a) Concave mirror

(b) Convex mirror

(d) None of the above

70. Consider the following statements

(i) Liquified crystals have the most important technological application in numerical display

(ii) Modem is a device that connects the computer with the phone line

(iii) National Marine Science Institute is located in Coimbatore

(iv) Virgins 70 is a method of

recording video programs Out of the above statements –

(a) only (i) and (ii) are true

(b) only (ii) and (iii) are true

(d) only (iii) and (iv) are true

71. A bullet is fired perpendicularly in the upward direction. It takes t, seconds to reach the highest point and t₂ seconds to come back to earth. Which of the following is true in this condition?

(a) t_₁ < t_₂

(b) t_₁ = t_₂

(d) t_₁ = ½ t_₂

72. Dynamo which is used to produce electricity, basically –

(a) works as a source of ions

(b) is a source of electric charge

(d) is a source of electrons

73. Half life of a radio active element is 60 minutes. What will be the part of nucleus that disintegrates in 3 hours ?

(a) 8.5%

(b) 12.5%

(d) 87.5%

74. Which pollutants are emitted by the use of CNG which can be reduced by the use of a more clarified green fuel called HCNG?

(a) SO² and CO

(b) SO₂ and CH⁴

(d) NOx and CO₂

75. A carbon microphone is best used in

(a) Dynamo

(b) Telephone

(d) None of the above

76. If the distance between sun and earth was double its original value than what would be the gravitational pull exerted by sun on the surface of earth ?

(a) Double than original

(b) Four times the original

(d) Half of the original

77. Weight of any object

(a) Is constant at all the places on surface of earth

(b) Is maximum at the equators

(d) Is maximum on the poles

78. Which of the following is used as a mosquito repellant ?

(a) Pyrethrum

(b) Rotinone

(d) None of the above

79. Smoke shields are generally used to hide and deceit the enemy in the battlefield. Smokes shields are normally made of dispersed particles in air of which of the following ?

(a) Sodium Chloride

(b) Silver Chloride

(d) Magnesium Oxide

80. Which is the most poisonous pollutant emitted from automatic vehicles?

(a) Copper

(b) Lead

(d) None of the above

81. Which of the following gases is used in conservation of Ex situ in Cryo bank?

(a) Nitrogen

(b) Oxygen

(d) Methane

82. What is hydroponix ?

(a) Soil less plant production

(b) Attaching column to plants

(d) Water conservation

83. Consider the following statements

(i) Coal, Petroleum and Natural gas are fossil fuels

(ii) Gasohol is a mixture of benzene and alcohol

(iii) Geothermal energy is a non conventional source of energy

(iv) Gobar gas is mainly composed of

Out of the above statements

(a) Only (i) and (ii) are true

(b) Only (ii) and (iii) are true

(d) Only (i), (iii) and (iv) are true

84. Which of the following is a source of bio fertilizers ?

(a) Yeast

(b) Chlorella

(d) Mold

85. Those plants which are known as petro crops are abundant in –

(i) carbohydrates

(ii) hydrocarbons

(iii) protein

(iv) lipids

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

(b) (ii) and (iv) only

(d) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only

86. Which of the following plant hormone is responsible for ripening of fruits?

(a) Cytocinin

(b) Abscorbic acid

(d) None of the above

87. What is the name of disease in which uric acid is primarily found in blood ?

(a) Arthritis

(b) Gout

(d) Rumetic heart

88. When the body gets dehydrated, which of the following gets low in human body?

(a) Sugar

(b) Calcium phosphate

(d) Potassium chloride

89. Which of the following is not a natural source of Vitamin A ?

(a) Mango

(b) Papaya

(d) Milk

90. Cotton threads are found in –

(a) Leaves

(b) Seed

(d) Root

91. What is the name of station set up recently by India in Antarctica?

(a) Bharati

(b) Dakshin Gangotri

(d) None of the above

92. What is the colour of black box found in an airplane?

(a) Orange

(b) Red

(d) Black

93. Which of the following is not an airplane?

(a) Jaguar

(b) Dornear 228

(d) MIG 27 M

94. Ozone depleting gases are not emitted from the use of which of the following products ?

(a) Perfume

(b) Body Spray

(d) Modern Refrigerator

95. Which of the following is true regarding Kendu ?

(a) It is used more as a hidden product as compared to main product

(b) It is used more as a main product as compared to hidden product

(d) None of the above

96. Sutiya Nagkhand was spread –

(a) Almost entire Jharkhand

(b) Only in the Palamu region

(d) Only in the Chhotanagpur region

97. Who was the founder of first branch of Singh dynasty (established in 8th century AD?

(a) Kashinath Singh

(b) Darp Narayan Singh

(d) None of the above

98. Jharkhand is situated in the _______ part of India ?

(a) North Eastern

(b) North Western

(d) Southern

99. State bird of Jharkhand is

(a) Koel

(b) Nakta

(d) Swan

100. Maximum population of scheduled tribes is found in which of the following districts?

(a) East Singhbhum

(b) West Singhbhum

(d) Ranchi

Answers with Explanation

1. (b) Rigveda is considered oldest among the four Vedas. It contains 2028 Suktas. Out of these, 250 suktas are dedicated to Indra. Indra holds a special place among heavenly gods. He is known to be the god of storm and thunder. He is also known as Purandar because he destroyed the Puras. Then comes Varun. Either he is equivalent to Indra or comes second after Indra. Agni is also an important deity of Rigvedic gods. 200 suktas are dedicated to him. He is intermediary between gods and humans as he accepts the sacrifices made by humans and delivers them to the gods. Rudra is also an important deity. He is the god of wind. Vishnu is also mentioned in Rigveda but he was not very important in that era.

2. (a) Shilppadikaram is an important epic of Sangam literature. It was written by Ilango Vadigal, grand son of great Chola king, Karikal. It is a very realistic book. It contains the sad story of the son of a rich businessman of Puhar or Kaveri Pattnam, Kovalan and his beautiful but unfortunate wife Kannagi. It is through this epic, we get to know that Raja Gajabahu I, emperor of Sri Lanka was present at the inaugural function of a temple of goddess of virginity, Kannagi which was organized by Sher Naresh Shenguttuvan. Sri Lankan emperor Gajabahu I ruled in the latter part of 2nd century. Vishnu Swamin was a saint who founded the Shuddhadvaitavad.

3. (d) Shankardev was the person who popularized Vaishnavism in Kamrup (Assam). He lived from 1449 to 1568. His message was centered on the devotion of Vishnu or his incarnation, Krishna. Monoethism was the gist of his preaching. The community founded by him was known as Ek Sharan sampraday. Shankardev was opposed to both idol worship and karm kand. He was the only Krishna follower vaishnava saint who was opposed to worshiping Krishna in the form of idol. Since he was the greatest Vaishnava saint of Assam, he was also known as Chaitanya of Assam. Nimbarkacharya founded Dvaitvaad. Ramanand was the first saint of North India of the Bhakti era. Chaitanya was a great saint of Krishna sampraday and founder of Goudiya dharma.

4. (a) Keeping the importance of water in mind, Maurya emperor, Chandragupta Maurya built a lake. Pushyagupta, the provincial governor of Chandragupta Maurya built the famous Sudarshan lake near Girnar in Gujarat. During the reign of Ashoka, his governor, Tussar built connecting canals in this lake. Gupta ruler, Skandagupta was not only an apt army general but also an able administrator. It is evident from his Junagarh inscription that he appointed Parnpal as his governor for Surashtra province. This inscription mentions the renovation of lake done by Chakrapalit.

5. (d) In the question, date on Chalukya is mentioned 556 Shaka Samvat. According to Jain literature, Shakas defeated the descendants of Vikramaditya (57 BC) in his 135th year of rule and captured his kingdom. They started a samvat in the honour of this victory, which is known as Shaka Samvat. Thus the first year of Shaka Samvat is calculated to 135 -57= 78. Some scholars are not in favour of associating the shaka samvat with any one ruler but most of them accept that ruler of Kushana dynasty, Kanishka is its promoter. Putting the date in question into this equation, the Chalukya date become 78 + 556 AD= 634 AD.

6. (c) Buddhist, Hindu and Jain made cave temples are present in Ellora. These caves were built by Rashtrakul rulers from 750 AD to 950 AD. Here 34 hills have been carved to build 34 buddhist monasteries and Chaityas, Hindu temples Jain abodes.

7. (c) Situated in Bhagalpur province in Bihar, Vikramshila was an education center which was renowned as much as Nalanda. It was founded by Pal ruler. Dahrampal (775 to 800 AD). He built temples and monasteries and gave generous grants to them. 160 monasteries and many conference chambers are present here. Descendants of Dharampal continued giving it the royal protection till 13th century. As a result, Vikramshila remained an international university for more than four centuries.

8. (c) Akbar did order some restraints on social and personal customs but he did so only as a work of reform. For example, he passed an order that every man should, marry only one women and he was allowed to marry another woman only if his first wife is infertile. He granted hindu widows the right to remarry and prohibited widows from forcefully being sati. He prohibited marriage among closed relatives. He prohibited boys below 16 and girls below 14 years of age to marry. He also abolished alcohol and provided a separate place for prostitutes.

9. (a) Elizabeth I lived from 1533 AD to 1603 AD. She was the daughter of Henry VIII and Anie Vonin and ruled in England from 1558 AD to 1603 AD. The defeat of Spanish Armada (1588 AD) happened during her time. Great author Shakespeare lived during her time. During that time India was ruled by Akbar. Akbar sat on the throne of Delhi on 1556 AD and ruled till 1605 AD. This is the time of rule of Elizabeth in England as well. East India Company was formed in 1600 AD during her time.

10. (b) Emperor Akbar had come in contact of Jain scholars very early. It is believed that he had arranged for a debate between both sects of Jainism in 1568 AD. He invited great jain Hir Vijay Suri of Gujarat in 1582 to explain the Jain shastras. Inspired by his immense knowledge, deep philosophy and sane character, Akbar himself gave up flesh eating and put a ban on killing of birds and animals. Hir Vijay Suri remained in his court for two years and he was awarded with the title of Jagadguru.

11. (c) Doctrine of Lapse is one of the most important acts of Dalhousie. He believed that an adopted son of any ruler has the right to his father’s property but he has no right to ascend to the throne. He made this a rule and introduced the doctrine of Lapse, States that were annexed under the doctrine of lapse were – Satara (1849), Jaitpur and Sambhalpur (1849) Bahat (1850), Udaipur (1852). Jhansi (1853) and Nagpur (1854). He annexed Awadh on the grounds of bad governance in 1856.

12. (c) Divan of Travancore, Velu Thampi led an armed rebellion against the growing atrocities of company, Travancore which is presently a part of Tamil Nadu, was a part of Mysore at that time. Velu Thampi also contacted the French and Americans for help in his revolt against British. Velu Thampi also contacted local rulers for support but he did not get any. In the end when the company’s army advanced further, Velu Thampi committed suicide but he did not surrender.

13. (d) Ram Prasad Bismil was a resident of Shahjahanpur in Uttar Pradesh. He was a member of Hindustan Socialist Republican Organization. He played an important part in Kakori train robbery. Member of Hindustan Socialist Republican Organization, Chandra Shekhar Azad was the founder of Hindustan Socialist Republic Association. Lala Lajpat Rai is also known as Sher e Punjab or Punjab Kesari. He opposed the Simon Commission (1927). Bhagat Singh joined the Hindustan Republican Association in 1925. He founded the Punjab Naujawan Sabha. The credit for Chittagong revolution in Bengal goes to Master Surya Sen. He founded the revolt group.

14. (d) Revolutionary movement in London was led primarily by Shyamji Krishna Verma, V. D. Savarkar, Madan Lal Dhingra and Lala Hardayal. Shyamji Krishna Verma founded the Indian Home rule Association in London in 1905. It was known as India house. The objective of this association was to gain freedom by terrorizing the British. A news letter called Sociologist was also published from here. Due to crack downs in London Shyamji Krishna Verma moved to Paris and finally Geneva. Annie Besant and Bal Gangadhar Tilak successfully led the Home Rule movement and towered in Indian politics. Mahatma Gandhi remained in the movement as the backbone of Indian thought from 1915’till his death in 1948.

15. (d) On 17th December 1928, revolutionaries killed Sandars and his reader Charan Singh in Lahore instead of Scott to avenge the death of Lala Lajpat Rai. Bhagat Singh, Rajguru and Sukhdev were hanged as a punishment to this crime. Ramprasad Bismil and Roshan Singh were also associated with Indian revolutionary movements. Bismil and Roshan Singh were also conspirator in the Kakori train robbery case along side Bhagat Singh, These people formed the Hindustan Republican Association.

16. (b) D K Karve established first women’s college in Bombay in 1905 to encourage the reach of education in India. MG ranade was a reformist leader of Maharashtra. He founded the Prarthnan sabah with the help of Keshav Chandra sen. Pandit Rama Bai founded the Mahila Seva Sadan in Puna. Widows and homeless women were provided protection at this place. She established this institution for emancipation of women. Age of consent act 1891 was passed by the efforts of V M Malabari. Under this act girls below the age of 12 were prohibited to marry. He founded a social organization by the name of Seva Sadan.

17. (d) Non Cooperation movement was launched by Mahatma Gandhi in 1920 which was called off after the Chauri Chaura incident. In the backdrop of this a meeting of Congress Working Committee was called on 24th February 1922. A resolution was passed in this meeting according to which all such activities were prohibited that could lead to breaking the law. Many national leaders like Subhash Chandra Bose, Motilal Nehru, C. R. Das and Jawahar Lal Nehru dissented with Mahatma Gandhi for his decision to call off the non cooperation movement. Dr. Munje brought the censure motion against Mahatma Gandhi.

18. (a) During the partition of Bengal, entire Bengal observed the day of morning on 16th October 1905, the day on which the partition came in effect. Stoves were not lit, people observed a fast and strike was observed in Calcutta. People carried out procession. In the morning people bathed in Ganga in groups after groups. Then they started protesting and cried out the slogan of ‘Vande Mataram’. This cry of Vande Mataram was the call for war from the people protesting on the streets. People tied rakhi to each other so that British could not wedge à divide amongst them.

19. (d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak was a prominent leader of Congress. He belonged to the group of extremes. He accused the congress of pursuing the policy of request, plead and oppose.

20. (c) Mrs. Annie Besant was one of the great Indian congress leader. She became the President of Congress in 1917. She started the Home Rule movement in India. She published newsletters like New India and Common Wheel to awaken the public opinion. 4

21. (a) One of the important characteristics of Quit India Movement was formation of parallel governments in various parts of the country. These places were as follows –

1. Balia (August 1942): Here the parallel government was formed under the leadership of Chittu Pandey.

2. Tamluk (Midnapur, Bengal) December 1942 to September 1944): The government here started programs for those affected by floods.

3. Satara (Maharashtra, mid 1943 to 1945): This was the longest running government. Here all the parallel governments were formed by their names. Nana Patil, Y. V. Chauhan were the prominent leaders.

22. (c) Abdul Gaffar Khan formed the Khudai Khidmatgar party during the Non Cooperation movement and also started the Red Shirt movement. Krishak Praja Party was founded by Fajlul HAq. Allah Baksh was a nationalist Muslim leader. Congress council of ministers was formed under his leadership in Sindh in 1938. In a reply to Pakistan resolution of league, Allah Baksh founded the Azad Muslim Congress in 1940. Khaksar party was founded by Allama Mashriqi in 1931.

23. (b) Khilafat movement was launched under the leadership of Ali brothers Muhammad Ali and Shaukat Ali, Ajmal khan and Hasrat Mohani in 1919. The objective of this movement was to pressurize the British to change their stand on Turkey. In 1916, Home Rule movement was started by the efforts of Annie Besant and Tilak with an objective to concile with the idea of self rule. Civil disobedience movement was launched by Mahatma Gandhi in 1930 and its objective was to break the Salt law. Sarojini Naidu, C. Rajgopalachari, Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, Jawahar Lal Nehru, K. Kallappan also took part in the movement. Nana Patil as the leader of the parallel government formed in Satara during the Quit India Movement.

24. (b) Godavari, Krishna, Cauvery etc. are the important rivers of peninsular India that fall in the Bay of Bengal whereas Narmada and Tapti are the two rivers which fall in the Arabian Sea after passing through the rift valley. But the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion, because the confluence of the rivers is mentioned in the statement whereas the reason tells the direction or region of their flow.

25. (b) In India, coffee is cultivated in South India. Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu are some important coffee producer states in India. Apart from them it is also grown in Maharashtra, Odisha, West Bengal, Andhra Pradesh, Andaman & Nicobar Islands. Largest cultivation of coffee is done in Karnataka. Karnataka produces almost 68% of total coffee in India.

26. (c) Kaushal is a variety of groundnut. In India, groundnut holds an important place in oilseeds. It is high in protein content. It contains 25.30% protein, 10% carbohydrate and 40% fat. In India, highest amount of groundnut is sowed in Gujarat in terms of area of cultivation whereas Maharashtra is the leading producer. Aprt from Kaushal, 28,29,100 Spanish T M V- 1 and 3, Punjab number 1, Capargaon, Arliner, Jyoti and Junagarh are the another varieties of groundnut. Varieties of gram TA 1, 3, Patanjali 114, RS 11, C-235, Pusa, Gaurav, Ajay, Atul etc. Varieties of wheat – Sonalika, UP 2003, Malviya 12, 37, Janak, Shera, Shailja, Girija etc. Varieties of cotton Shyamali, Lohit 216 and Anjali etc.

27. (b) Hot places of Africa are believed to be the origin of okra or ladyfinger. Hot and humid climate is favourable for the cultivation of okra. Enriched in microorganisms, fully prepared loam soil is appropriate for okra. It has many varieties like Pusa makhmali, Pusa savani, Lakhnu Dwarf, Lal green, Velvet green, Smooth green and Redbender etc. Yellow coloured Shira disease affects the plant of okra and is caused by white flies. Other crops that are affected by the white flies are – urad, soybean, mung, groundnut, rice, maize, orange, tomato, brinjal, chili, pumpkin etc.

28. (a) Red colour of apple is due to anthocyanin. Apart from thisruiya insect, guvtail, chedak insect etc. spread disease. Another disease affecting the crop of apple is white powder. To control these monochroto pass pairathiyaine dijiyaine and vastic are used. Apple is a semi temperate crop. In India it is grown in Jammu & Kashmir, Uttaranchal, and Himachal Pradesh. James Greeve, Army, Sanvari, Samar Golden etc. are its varieties.

29. (a) Spongy tissue is a grave disease that is affecting the export of Alphonso variety of mango. Mango is a crop which grows in both wet and dry atmosphere. Some varieties of mango are Neelam, Beglaira that grow every year and Malada and Dasahari that grow every two years. Mallika and Amrapali varities give regular yield. Some other varieties are Gopal Bhog, Shahrabad, Bambai hara, Bambai pila, Singapuri, Malihabad, Taimurilung etc. Bhunga, Gajiakrote, Tana, Chhedak, Inderwala, pital etc. are the insects that infest mango whereas roots and stem are affected by Anthas.

30. (c) Salal hydro electric power project is being built in Jammu & Kashmir. This power plant is being built on the banks of river Chenab. It will also be used for irrigation. Sharavati hydro electric project is situated on River Sharavati in Karnataka. Garsoppa or Jog waterfall is built at some distance. Koena project is an important hydro electric power project of Maharashtra. Tihri hydro power project is under construction in Uttarakhand. It is one of the largest power projects of Asia. It is situated on the banks of rivers Bhilangana and Bhagirathi.

31. (c) Dhalli Rajhara is situated in Durg district in Chhattisgarh which is known for production of iron ore. Rakha is located in a region spread over an area of 140 sq km between Jharkhand and Odisha. Nellore is situated in Andhra Pradesh which is famous for mica. Manganese is found in Vishakhapatnam, Kudappa and Shrikakulam in Andhra Pradesh. Amarkantak is located in Bilaspur in Chhattisgarh. Ores of bauxite are found here.

32. (b)

33. (a) Khetri region spreads from Singhana in Jhunjhunu district to Raghunathgarh (around 80 km) in Rajasthan. Khetri is one of the oldest mines of India. Copper is being excavated from this site since ancient Harappan civilization. Aureya is situated in Uttar Pradesh. Korba is situated in Chhatisgarh. The Aluminum factory at this place earlier was a public venture but later it was sold to private enterprise. Refinery is located in kochi.

34. (d) Monazite is a nuclear mineral ore. It is a mixture of thorium, uranium, serium and lanthanum found in pagmetite rocks. Monazite is obtained from sand deposits. It is formed by disintegration of pre cambrium rocks and transforming in powders. It is obtained from sand deposits near sea coasts. It is primarily found in Kerala. (

35. (d) International waterways were built under Water transportation. In these National waterway 1, between Haldia (West Bengal) and Allahabad (Uttar Pradesh) is 1629 km long. It is built on river Ganga. Apart from this, National Waterway 2 is built between Sadia and Dhuvari on river Brahmaputra and it is 19 km long. National Waterway 3 is 186 km long and runs between Kollam and Kottapuram in Kerala. National Waterway 4 is still proposed. It runs between Kakinada and Marakanam for 1100 km on river Godavari and Krishna. National highway 50 extends from Nasik to Pune. Durgapur to Kolkata is expressway. Headquarters of South Central railway is located in Sikandarabad (Andhra Pradesh).

36. (a) All the planets revolve around the sun in a circular path of different diameters. There are 8 planets – Mercury, Venus, Earth Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune. Pluto has been removed from the categories of planet. Satellites are those heavenly bodies that revolve around the planets. Different planets have their own satellites. Mercury and Venus do not have any satellite of their own whereas Earth has one, Mars has 2, Jupiter has 16, Saturn has 23, Uranus has 15 and Neptune has 21 satellites. Moon is a satellite of Earth. Comets revolve around the sun in large circular orbits. Man made satellites are those celestial bodies that are propelled in space by humans. They revolve around the earth. Aryabhatt was the first satellite launched by India. Similarly Mariner is also a man made satellite.

37. (b) When we move towards East or West along the longitude, the time difference for every longitude is 4 minute. This difference rises to 1 hour for every 15° change in longitude. Indian Standard Time is established in Allahabad which is situated at 82%2° East. When we move towards east along the longitude, time moves forward. Therefore if the time in India is 12 midnight and another place shows 6 in the morning therefore there is a difference of 6 hours between these two places. Since it is morning at that place, it means it is situated in the East of India. Longitudinal difference between India and that place will be 6 x 15° = 90°. Since at the time of midnight in India, there is morning at that place thus the longitudinal position of this place will 90° East to meridian. Thus longitudinal position of that place with respect to India will be 82%2° + 90° = 1722° East.

38. (b) New York is an important city of United States of America. At present it is the busiest port of the world and traffic here has increased a lot. It plays an important role in trade between America and Europe. Therefore it is credited to be the busiest port in the world.

39. (a) Out of the given alternatives, pair of grassland and its location given in alternative (a) is not matched correctly. Downs grass lands is found in temperate zone in South East Australia whereas in the question the location is mentioned as tropical grass lands which is not true.

40. (c) Troposphere, the lowest layer of earth’s atmosphere spreads from 10 to 15 km from the surface. All the climate activities take place in this layer. Stratosphere, which is located above troposphere, absorbs the harmful ultraviolet rays coming from the sun. Ozone layer is situated in stratosphere. Radio signals are reflected back from ionosphere.

41. (a)

42. (a) According to census 2001, West Bengal is the densely populated state of India. Its population density was recorded 904. According to census 2011, West Bengal stands at second place in terms of population density which was recorded at 1028. Bihar is the most densely populated state of India. Its population density is 1106.

43. (b) According to latest census 2011, literacy rates in Kerala, Mizoram, Goa and Maharashtra was 94.0%, 931.3%, 88.7% and 82.3% respectively.

44. (b) Khasi and Garo speaking population is found in Meghalaya. These are Indian tribes that live in the Khasi and Garo hills.

45. (a) Directive Principles of State policies were certainly added in the constitution through 42nd constitutional amendment that added Article 48 A and 48 B in Article 48. According to this, preservation of wild life and environment and their promotion shall be the duty of a citizen of the state. Article 48B added the provision for making security measures for forests and wild lives.

46. (a) Fundamental duties are mentioned in Part IV A of the Constitution of India. Provisions for fundamental duties were added by including Article 51 A through 42nd constitutional amendment act. They were added on the recommendations made by the Swarn Singh Committee that took inspirations from the Constitution of Russia and could be the ideal duties of an ideal citizen towards his country.

47. (a) Article 23 grants the right against exploitations. According to it, traffic in human beings and beggar and other similar forms of forced labour are prohibited and any contravention of this provision shall be an offence punishable in accordance with law. There is an exception to this right Nothing in this article shall prevent the State from imposing compulsory service for public purpose, and in imposing such service the State shall note make any discrimination on grounds only of religion, race, caste or class or any of them. Article 24 states that no child below the age of fourteen years shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment but a child can be employed in other conditions. dExploitation in the form of bondage labour (bandhua majdoori) was very popular in various parts of India. Some steps were taken to end this practice in which child labour was prohibited.

48. (c) 42nd constitutional amendment act were passed on 18th December 1976. It contained 59 provisions. Directive Principles of State Policies were given an important status as compared to Fundamental Rights through these amendments. It was stated that any law passed by the parliament to implement the Directive Principles cannot be challenged in courts on the grounds that it violates any Fundamental Rights. Some new principles were added in Directive principles. For example, according to Article 39 B and C providing free legal assistance to weaker section of the society, providing opportunity and facilities for healthy growth of children, providing free and compulsory education to children between 10 and 14 years of age.

49. (b) Article 16(1) of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters relating to employment or appointment to any office under the State. It is stated in Article 16(2) that no citizen shall, on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth, residence or any of them, be ineligible for, or discriminated against in respect or, any employment or office under the State. Article 16(3), 16(4), 16(5) are exceptions to Article 16(1) and 16(2) in which the parliament has been empowered to make laws to provide reservations for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and Backward Classes in appointment to any office under the state.

50. (a) Article 20 and 21 can not be suspended even if a national emergency has been proclaimed under the provisions of Article 359. It is stated in the constitution that no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law.

51. (b) Subsection 4 of Article 22 of the Constitution of India states that no law providing for preventive detention shall authorise the detention of a person for a longer period than three months unless (a) an Advisory Board consisting of persons who are, or have been, or are qualified to be appointed as, Judges of a High Court has reported before the expiration of the said period of three months that there is in its opinion sufficient cause for such detention.

52. (b) 3 types of emergencies have been mentioned in the Constitution of India. 1. According to Article 352, the President of India can declare national emergency due to war, external aggression or armed rebellion. It can be in imposition for 6 months. 2. Article 356 provides that if the President, on receipt of a report from the Government of a state or otherwise, is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the Government of the State cannot be carried on by the provisions of the Constitution, the President may issue a proclamation. 3. Article 360 states that if the President is satisfied that a situation has arisen whereby the financial stability or the credit of India or any part thereof is threatened, President may declare a state situation has not arisen yet.

53. (c) Approval of at least 50 members is mandatory to bring no confidence motion in the Lok Sabha. If the motion carries, the House debates and votes on the motion. If a majority of the members of the house vote in favour of the motion, the motion is passed and the Government is bound to vacate the office.

54. (d) According to Article 249 of the Constitution of India if the Rajya Sabha has declared by resolution supported by not less than two thirds of the members present and voting that it is necessary or expedient in national interest that Parliament should make laws with respect to any matter enumerated in the State List specified in the resolution, it shall be lawful for Parliament to make laws for the whole or any part of the territory of India with respect to that matter while the resolution remains in force. A resolution passed under such clause shall remain in force for such period not exceeding one year as may be specified therein but if the Rajya Sabha requires it can be extended for a period of one year every time.

55. (b) The office of deputy Prime Minister is outside the provisions of Constitution of India that contain details for the council of ministers. This post was. created to satisfy and appease personal ambitions. Union Home Minister, Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel was the first person to be appointed on this post. Later Devilal became the deputy Prime Minister in the Janta Party government. Lal Krishna Advani was also appointed to this post in the NDA government.

56. (a) Article 137 of the Constitution of India, 1950, provides that subject to provisions of any law and rules made under Article 145, the Supreme Court has the power to review any judgment pronounced or order made by it.

57. (d) The final decision to disqualify any member of parliament under Article 102 (1) is taken by the President on the advice of Election commission, which is considered to be the monopoly of election commission. Although, it can challenged in the Supreme Court of India.

58. (c) A new part, Part 9, which was related to Gram Panchayat, was added to the Indian constitution by 73rd constitutional amendment. 16 new articles and 1 new schedule-11 was added by this amendment. These contained provisions for structure of gram panchayats, powers, authority and responsibilities etc. 11th schedule contains 29 subjects that grant the gram panchayats to frame laws.

59. (b) The Chrarter Act of 1813 empowered the Governor General to grant a sum of 1 lakh rupees for Revitalization and growth of literature and to promote local scholars and to encourage the learning of science in the residents of British India.

60. (d) 79th constitutional amendment act extended the date of reservation for scheduled caste and scheduled tribes till 25th January 2010. This amendment also made provisions to extend the date for representation of Anglo Indian community in the parliament till the said period. President K. R. Narayanan gave his consent to this amendment bill on 24th January 2000.

61. (a) Human Development Index was launched by the economist of United Nations Development Program, Mahbub Ul Haq and his economist associates A. K. Sen and Singer Hans. The human development Index developed by them is based on following three points –

1. Life expectancy at the time of birth

2. Educational academic accomplish-ments

3. Standard of living which is calculated by per capita income (in dollars).

62. (b) Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana, Aam Admi Bima Yojana and Unorganised Workers Social Security Act 2008, these three were adopted under social security programs. Aam Admi Bima Yojana was launched on 2nd October 2007 and Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana was launched on 1st October 2007. Their objective was to provide insurance to the chief or bread earner of landless rural family and to every person of a BPL family who worked in unorganized sector.

63. (b) In order to promote the field of Horticulture and its contribution in national economy, Government of India launched a program in 2005 to diversify agriculture and promote the cultivation of high revenue earning fruits and flowers and to promote a growth in the income of farmer, national Horticulture Mission was launched. The five year plan was tenured 1st April 2002 to 31st March 2007, thus it was launched in the tenth five year plan.

64. (a) Demand deposits opened by banks are used as currency because the transfer of money is done by cheques. Fixed deposits are also opened by banks but the owner can withdraw only after a certain period of time. Therefore fixed deposit is the most important factor in liabilities of banks.

65. (a) Tax on agriculture is imposed by the state government. Bihar was the first state to impose tax on agriculture.

66. (b) Doctors reflect the light from a small concave mirror to look inside eyes, ears, nose and throat.

67. (c) Two pins attached to the same end of a magnet cannot remain perpendicular to each other because similar poles repel each other. A free hanging magnet always aligns in the North-South direction which are known as the two poles of the magnet. Magnetic power at the poles is maximum.

68. (c) Breeder reactor is used to create fuel for other reactors. Uranium is converted into P-239 which is a fissionable material.

69. (a) Concave lens is used in a search light. A concave lens is a lens that possesses at least one surface that curves inwards. It is a diverging lens, meaning that it spreads out light rays that have been refracted through it.

70. (a) Liquefied crystals are best used in numeric displays. Modem is a device of the computer system which is connected to a phone line and a computer. National Marine Science Center is situated in Panaji.

71. (b) Any particle returns to the earth at the same angle and velocity with which it is propelled therefore it will come down in the same time it goes up.

72. (c) Dynamo is a device which converts mechanical energy into electric energy. It works on the principle of electro magnetic induction. When the core of a star is rotated in a permanent magnetic field, an electric current is induced through the core. It sends AC current in the outer circuit.

73. (b)

74. (a)

75. (b) A carbon microphone is best applied in a telephone. Microphone is used to convert sound energy into electrical energy. It is used to propagate sound from one place to another. Microphone works on the principle of electro magnetic induction. In it carbon granules are placed in between two flat metal plates. Out of these two plates, one is stationary and another is moving. This electric energy when reaches to another place then it is reconverted into sound energy through a loud speaker or telephone.

76. (c) If the distance between the sun and earth is increased to double its present value then the gravitational pull exerted by sun on the surface of earth will reduce to one fourth of its present value.

77. (d) Weight of an object is maximum at the poles because the gravitational force of earth is maximum at the poles and minimum at the equator.

78. (a) Pyrethrum is used as a mosquito repellant. Mosquitoes are cleared from houses by creating smokes of sulfur, neem leaves and pyrethrum.

79. (c) Smoke shields are formed due to colloidal dispersion of extremely small particles of titanium oxide in the air.

80. (b) Lead is the most polluting element that is emitted from an automatic vehicle. Presence of tetraethyl lead (C₂H₂) Pb reduces the deflation of gasoline (petrol). Matters that reduce the deflation of petrol are known as anti knock agent.

81. (a) Ex situ conservation is the process of protecting an endangered species, variety or breed, of plant or animal outside its natural habitat. Ex situ conservation methods are of two kinds. First method is the conservation of endangered species in a zoological park. Second method is the storage of seeds, pollen, tissue, or embryos in liquid nitrogen.

82. (a) Hydroponics is a method of growing plants without soil by instead using mineral nutrient solutions in a water solvent.

83. (d) Fossil fuel is a fuel formed by natural processes, such as anaerobic decomposition of buried dead organisms, containing energy originating in ancient photosynthesis. Carbon compounds are present in abundance in these fuels. Coal, petroleum and natural gas etc. are fossils are easily decomposed by water in presence of micro organisms. Methane, Carbon Dioxide, Hydrogen Sulphide are emitted in this process. This gaseous mixture is known as bio gas. It contains 65% methane.

84. (c)

85. (b) Those plants which are commonly known as petro crops are abundant in carbohydrates and lipids. Petroforus are carbonic compounds that are known as hydro carbonş. Hydro carbons form bio compound with Cn and O. These petrocrops are fatty as well. Lipid also is a compound made of Cn and O. OH content in them is less as compared to hydrocarbons.

86. (c) Ethylene is the plant hormone responsible for ripening of fruits. Ethylene (C,H) is used to artificially ripen fruits, and to make poisonous mustard gas.

87. (b)

88. (c)

89. (a) Vitamin A is found in mango. It is found in all the other food products mentioned in the question – milk, carrot, papaya and green vegetables.

90. (c) Cotton threads are obtained from the seeds. Cotton is a plant belonging to mallow family. After the cultivation new crops are obtained from its seeds.

91. (a) Recent research station set up by India in Antarctica is called Bharati. Other research stations – dakshin Gangotri and Maitri were established earlier.

92. (a) The colour of black box of an airplane is orange. The objective behind installing it is that if the plane crashes then the reason for crash can be determined by analyzing the device installed in it.

93. (c) Sarath is a rocket launcher. It is a multi barrel rocket launcher which can fire missiles continuously or in small intervals. It is developed by the D.R.D.O.

94. (d) Chemical substance. chlorofluorocarbon affects the ozone layer. It is emitted from refrigerators, foam, perfume, body spray etc. Foam is a natural substance. Modern refrigerators do not emit ozone depleting gases.

95. (a)

96. (a)

97. (a)

98. (a)

99. (a)

100. (b)

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Model Question Paper – 14

Model Question Paper – 14

Answers with Explanation

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