Model Question Paper – 3
Model Question Paper – 3
1. Cultivation of food grains started in which of the following ages ?
(a) Neolithic Age
(b) Middle Stone Age
(c) Paleolithic Age
(d) Proto Historic Period
2. A ploughed field was first found in
(a) Mohenjo – Daro
(b) Kalibanga
(c) Harappa
(d) Lothal
3. The term ‘GOTRA’ was first mentioned in which of the following?
(a) Atharvaveda
(b) Rigveda
(c) Samveda
(d) Yajurveda
4. Which of the following marks a distinct separation between the believers and non-believers. sections
(a) belief in the power of God
(b) belief in the concept of reincarnation
(c) belief in the authenticity of the Vedas
(d) belief in the rule of heaven and hell
5. Who was the promoter of Nyaya Darshan?
(a) Gautam
(b) Kapil
(c) Kanaad
(d) Jamini
6. Megalith structures have been identified as
(a) Caves of ancient saints
(b) A place used as a burial spot for the dead
(c) Temples
(d) None of the above
7. What was the capital of Kadamb rulers?
(a) Tanjore
(b) Vanvasi
(c) Kanchi
(d) Badami
8. Which of the following is matched correctly?
(a) Advaitvaad – Ramanujam
(b) Vishishtadvaitvaad – Shankaracharya
(c) Dvaitvaad – Madhvacharya
(d) Dvaitdvaitvaad – Vallabhacharya
9. Vikar mshila monestry (Mahavihar) was founded by the rulers of which dynasty?
(a) Pushpbhuti dynasty
(b) Varman dynasty
(c) Sen dynasty
(d) Pal dynasty
10. Which dynasty made the kailash temple in Ellora?
(a) Rashtrakut
(b) Satvahan
(c) Maurya
(d) Pulkeshin
11. Which of the following dynasties started the Laxman Samvat ?
(a) Pratiharas
(b) Pals
(c) Chauhans
(d) Sens
12. Who was the founder of Agra city?
(a) Feroz Tughlaq
(b) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq
(c) Alauddin Khilji
(d) Sikandar Lodhi
13. Tuti-i-hind, Amir Khusro was born in
(a) Patti
(b) Patli
(c) Patiali
(d) Patiala
14. Which Mughal emperor had imposed a ban on tobacco?
(a) Akbar
(b) Babar
(c) Jahanagir
(d) Aurangzeb
15. Shivaji defeated the Mughals in the battle of
(a) Purander
(b) Raigarh
(c) Salhar
(d) Shivner
16. Siraj ud-Daulah was defeated by Lord Clive in the battle of
(a) Plasi
(b) Buxar
(c) Munger
(d) Wandiwash
17. Who was the champion crusader of Renaissance Movement in India?
(a) Devendra Nath Tagore
(b) Keshav Chandra Sen
(c) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
(d) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
18. Who was a strong advocate of religious education being imparted in Indian universities ?
(a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(b) Swami Vivekanand
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Madan Mohan Malviya
19. Who is accredited for implanting permanent settlement in Bengal and Bihar?
(a) Lord Curzon
(b) Lord Cornwallis
(c) Lord Rippon
(d) Lord Velejali
20. Ancient Monument Conservation Act was passed during the tenure of which Governor General?
(a) Lord Minto
(b) Lord Linlithgow
(c) Lord Curzon
(d) Lord Canning
21. Which of the following books is linked with the development of national independence movement in India?
(a) Gitanjali
(b) Anand Math
(c) Satyarth Prakash
(d) Geeta Rahasya
22. Maximum concentration of slums in India is found in which state ?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) West Bengal
23. What is the expansion of territorial water of India?
(a) 3 nautical miles from the sea coast
(b) 6 nautical miles from the sea coast
(c) 12 nautical miles from the sea coast
(d) 24 nautical miles from the sea coast
24. The North western part on India is prone to earthquakes. What is the reason?
(a) Volcanic activities
(b) Plate tectonic activities
(c) Coral forming activities
(d) All of the above
25. Which of the following pairs is not matched correctly?
(a) Shivsamudram falls – Cauvery
(b) Chulia falls – Chambal
(c) Joga falls – Krishna
(d) Dhuandhar falls – Narmada
26. Stock goats of Nilgiri are found in
(a) Eravikulam National park
(b) Man forest
(c) Periyar reserved forest
(d) Shant valley
27. Which of the following birds is very close to extinction?
(a) Golden Oriole
(b) Great Indian Bustard
(c) Indian Fantail Pigeon
(d) Indian Sunbird
28. Chinar Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in
(a) Jammu & Kashmir
(b) Kerala
(c) Sikkim
(d) Tamil Nadu
29. India is self sufficient in the recoupment of
(a) Uranium
(b) Radium
(c) Iridium
(d) Thorium
30. Iron ore supply to Rourkela steel plant is done from –
(a) Keonjhar
(b) Dalli – Rajhara
(c) Kamangundi
(d) Mayurbhanj
31. Match column I and Column II and choose your answer from the codes given below:
Column I – Column II
A. Australia 1. Hurricane
B. China 2. Vili Vili
C. India 3. Typhoon
D. United States of America 4. Cyclone
Code:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 3 2 1 4
(d) 4 3 2 1
32. The International boundary between North and South Korea is
(a) 25° N latitude
(b) 33° N latitude
(c) 38° N latitude
(d) 48° N Latitude
33. Harmuj strait is found in
(a) between Black Sea and Marmara Sea
(b) between Gulf of Persia and Gulf of Oman
(c) between Arabian Sea and Red Sea
(d) between Red Sea and Mediterranean Sea
34. Which of the following is not a cold current ?
(a) Brazil current
(b) Venezuela current
(c) Peru current
(d) Labrador current
35. There are four layers of the atmosphere.
1. Ionosphere 2. Mesosphere 3. Stratosphere 4. Troposphere
On the basis of height from the surface what will be correct ascending order ?
Code:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 3 4 1 2
36. Ozone layer is found in
(a) Troposphere
(b) Tropopause
(c) Stratosphere
(d) Photosphere
37. Almost one third of rubber production of the world is done in –
(a) India
(b) Indonèsia
(c) Malaysia
(d) Thailand
38. The leading producer of cotton clothes in the world is –
(a) China
(b) India
(c) United States of America
(d) Russia
39. Assertion (A): The grape farming in the Mediterranean region in Europe is distinct.
Reason (R): 85% of its produce is used to make alcoholic beverages.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
40. Match Column I and Column II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
Column I – Column II
(Tribes) – (Country)
A. Bushman 1. Congo
B. Baddu 2. Namibia
C. Pigmi 3. Saudi Arabia
D. Masai 4. Kenya
Code:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 2 3 1 4
(d) 3 4 1 2
41. Which of the following is not matched correctly?
(a) China – Shanghai
(b) Canada – Otawa
(c) Australia – Canberra
(d) Russia – Moscow
42. In which of the following continents there is no land locked state ?
(a) Africa
(b) Asia
(c) Europe
(d) North America
43. Which city of Turkey is known as the gateway to the West ?
(a) Adana
(b) Ankara
(c) Istanbul
(d) Izmir
44. Assertion (A): Egypt is a gift of river Nile.
Reason (R): It is an oasis in the Sahara dessert.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
45. In terms of human development which is the most developed state of India?
(a) Kerala
(b) Punjab
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Uttar Pradesh
46. Which is world’s second largest economy after United States of America?
(a) China
(b) Germany
(c) Japan
(d) United Kingdom
47. What is the ranking of India on the basis of P.P.P ratings?
(a) 2nd
(b) 4th
(c) 6th
(d) 10th
48. Axim Bank of India was established on
(a) 1964
(b) 1976
(c) 1980
(d) 1982
49. IRDA in India regulates the –
(a) Banking business
(b) Insurance business
(c) Capital market
(d) Issuance of shares
50. Assertion (A): In India more 10 20 24 number of people die of tuberculosis as compared to any other disease.
Reason (R): Most of the patients of tuberculosis are in the age group of 15 to 59.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
51. Dragon fly is machine used to pull out –
(a) moisture from the air to make drinking water
(b) usable water carbon from motor vehicles
(c) edible oil from oil cakes
(d) threads from wood used in cloth industry
52. In comparison to eastern Himalayas the height of tree line in the western Himalayas are –
(a) more
(b) less
(c) same
(d) in proportionate change
53. Light from the sun takes approximately ________ to reach earth.
(a) 2 minutes
(b) 4 minutes
(c) 8 minutes
(d) 16 minutes
54. To an astronaut, the sky appears to be –
(a) Blue
(b) White
(c) Black
(d) Red
55. Which of the following layers of the atmosphere is apt for the propagation of radio waves ?
(a) Troposphere
(b) Startosphere
(c) Mesosphere
(d) Ionosphere
56. The following statement about the Constitution of India was made by whom?
“The Indian constitution strikes the right balance between a rigid and a flexible constitution”
(a) BR Ambedkar
(b) M V Payli
(c) Alexendrovicks
(d) K C Wheeler
57. How many sessions of the constituent assemble were held while framing the Constitution of India?
(a) 7
(b) 9
(c) 12
(d) 15
58. Which of the following defines India as a secular nation?
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Preamble
(c) 9th Schedule
(d) Directive Principles of State Policy
59. The Directive Principles of State Policy in the Constitution of India is borrowed from which of the following countries?
(a) United Kingdom (Britain)
(b) United States of America (USA)
(c) Ireland
(d) Japan
60. Which of the following describes all the spirits of secularism in India?
(a) There are many religions in India
(b) Indians enjoy religious freedom
(c) Every individual is free to follow the religion of his or her choice
(d) The state has no religion
61. If the position of President of India falls vacant and there is no Vice President as well then who among the following will discharge the duties of the President?
(a) Deputy chairman of the Rajya Sabha
(b) Attorney General of India
(c) Lok Sabha Speaker
(d) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of India
62. Which of the following statements is not true about the governor of any state?
(a) He is a part of the state executive
(b) He can pardon capital punishment
(c) He does not appoint the judges of the state high court
(d) He does not enjoy emergency powers
63. Match Column I and Column II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
Column I – Column II
A. Article 164 – 1. Appointment of the Chief Minister and Council of
Ministers of the state
B. Article 155 – 2. Appointment of the Governor of the state
C. Article 75 – 3. Appointment of the Prime Minister and Council of Ministers of the Union of India
D. Article 54 – 4. Election of the President of India
5. Structure of the Vidhan Sabha
Code:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 1 2 4 5
(c) 2 1 3 5
(d) 2 1 4 5
64. Match Column I and Column II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
Column I – Column II
A. Public Accounts Committee 1. Ad Hoc Committee
B. Petition Committee 2. Standing Committee
C. Stock Market – Scam Joint
Commission 3. Finance Committee
D. Departmental Committee 4. Working
Committee
Code:
A B C D
(a) 1 4 3 2
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 4 2 1 3
65. Indian parliament can not legislate of the matters listed in the state subject unless
(i) The President of India directs it to do so
(ii) The Rajya Sabha passes a motion that doing so is necessary in national interest
(iii) The Speaker of Vidhan Sabha establishes that such an act is necessary
(iv) There is a national emergency Choose your answer from the codes given below:
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
(c) (i) and (ii)
(d) (ii) and (iv)
67. Energy is maximum in which of the following types of radiation ?
(a) Visible
(b) X-ray
(c) Ultraviolet
(d) Infrared
68. The wavelength of visible light lies in the range of
(a) 200 nm to 900 nm
(b) 250 nm to 850 nm
(c) 300 nm to 800 nm
(d) 390 nm to 780 nm
69. Red colour is used to denote danger because –
(a) Scattering is minimum in red light
(b) It is comfortable to the naked eye
(c) It is least absorbed by the air
(d) It forms minimum chemical reactions
70. A small hologram of anything can also give complete information about it’.
Consider the above statement and choose the correct answer.
(a) It is true
(b) It is false
(c) It will depend upon the size of the piece
(d) It will depend upon the light used in inspection
71. Bats can fly in the dark and hunt their prey. This happens because
(a) They have bigger eyeballs
(b) They have very good night vision
(c) Every bird can do so
(d) They propagate supersonic waves and are directed by them
72. A man weighing 62 kgs on earth will weigh around 10 kgs on the moon. What will be his weight in the space?
(a) 00 (ZERO)
(b) 35 kg
(c) 54 kg
(d) 70 Kg
73. Which of the following is a semiconductor ?
(i) Silicon
(ii) Quartz
(iii) Ceramics
(iv) Germanium
> Choose your answer form the codes given below:
(a) (i) and (ii) only
(b) (i) and (iii) only
(c) (i) and (iv) only
(d) (iii) and (iv) only
74. Which of the following pairs denote particle and anti matter?
(a) electron – positron
(b) proton – neutron
(c) photon – electron
(d) neutron – neutrino
75. The plasctic waste obtained after use is often mixed with bitumen to construct roads. What property of plastic bags can be attributed to this phenomenon?
(a) Plastic can be burnt easily
(b) Plasctics are bio degradable
(c) Plastic gets hard when heated and becomes soft when it is cooled
(d) Plastic gets hard when cooled and becomes soft when heat is applied
76. Which of the following subsoil vegetables is a root ?
(a) potato
(b) sweet potato
(c) mistletoe
(d) yam
77. Which of the following diseases can not be controlled by vaccination ?
(a) diabetes
(b) polio
(c) hooping cough
(d) chicken pox
78. Which of the following microorganisms is used in the alcohol industry for alcoholic fermentation ?
(a) yeast
(b) bacteria
(c) cyno bacteria
(d) acetenomicite
79. Match Column I and Column II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below.
Column I – Column II
A. Khaira 1. deficiency of Vitamin C
B. Anemia 2. deficiency of Iodine
C. Goiter 3. deficiency of Iron
D Scurvy 4. deficiency of Zinc
Code:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 4 3 2 1
80. AIDS is an acronym for which of the following?
(a) Acquired immune deformity syndrome
(b) anticipated immune deficiency syndrome
(c) acquired immune deficiency syndrome .
(d) abnormal immune deficiency syndrome
81. The worm used in vermiculture is
(a) Tape worm
(b) Silk worm
(c) Thread worm
(d) Earth worm
82. Which of the following is true about the Kalapakkam fast breeder reactor?
(i) Only natural uranium used as a fuel in this reactor
(ii) A mixture of plutonium carbide and natural uranium is used as a fuel in this reactor
(iii) It will produce more than 200 mega watt electricity
> Choose your answer from the codes given below:
(a) (i) and (ii) only
(b) (i) and (iii) only
(c) (ii) and (iii) only
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
83. What is implied by geostationary position?
(a) when the earth will stop revolving around the sun
(b) when any objects is stationed between moon and the sun
(c) when any object revolves around the earth at the speed or the rotation of earth so that it maintains a uniform distance with the earth
(d) when an object is located at a particular distance from the earth
84. CAPART is an autonomous body which does works under –
(a) Agriculture minister
(b) Rural development ministry
(c) Industries ministry
(d) Planning commission
85. Abid Hussain was associated with
(a) promotion of export
(b) small and medium industries
(c) development of agriculture
(d) energy reforms
86. Which of the following is not a method to reduce inequality ?
(a) minimum guarantee program
(b) economic reforms
(c) tax imposition
(d) land reforms
87. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is a friend and guide of
(a) Select committee
(b) Estimate committee
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Public accounts committee
88. Which of the following states do not have a bicameral legislature ?
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Bihar
(d) Karnataka
89. If a member of parliament is deemed unfit then who takes the call of his removal?
(a) Chief election commissioner
(b) President on the recommendation of council of ministers
(c) President after an enquiry by the Supreme Court of India
(d) President according to the advice of the election commission
90. Sarkaria commission made a recommendation for which of the following?
(a) administrative reforms
(b) center-state relations
(c) panchayat
(d) urban governance
91. Which of the following is not included in the state list of the Constitution of India?
(a) code of criminal procedure
(b) police
(c) law and order
(d) jail
92. Marriage, divorce and adoption have been enlisted in the Constitution of India under which of the following?
(a) List I – Central List
(b) List II – State List
(c) List III – Concurrent List
(d) None of the above
93. Which of the following matters comes under the jurisdiction of Supreme Court as well as the High Court?
(a) mutual dispute between two states
(b) dispute between the state and the center
(c) safeguard of fundamental rights
(d) safeguard in violation of constitution
94. The arrangement of judicial review feature in
(a) only India
(b) only UK
(c) only USA
(d) India and USA
95. Who is the author of Castle Over Graves?
(a) Dr. Dev Kumar Dhan
(b) Victor Das
(c) Dr. Ramdayal Munda
(d) Shibu Soren
96. Coins belonging to Kanishka dynasty have been found in which of the following districts?
(a) Dhanbad
(b) Ranchi
(c) Giridih
(d) Hazaribagh
97. According to census 2011, which of the following sequence is true about three largest cities of Jharkhand ?
(a) Dhanbad, Bokaro, and Ranchi
(b) Jamshedpur, Dhanbad and Ranchi
(c) Ranchi, Dhanbad and Jamshedpur
(d) Dhanbad, Jamshedpur and Ranchi
98. According to the Jharkhand High Court rules – 2011, what is the prescribed distance from the high court for the advocates to set up their offices?
(a) 15 km
(b) 20 km
(c) 25 km
(d) 30 km
99. Which tribe of Jharkhand finds a mention in the participation of coronation of lord Rama prior to his exile?
(a) Munda
(b) Santhal
(c) Ho
(d) Birhor
100. Which tribal movement is also known as Safahaar movement ?
(a) Tana Bhagat movement
(b) Kharwar movement
(c) Sardari movement
(d) None of the above
Answers with Explanation
1. (a) In the global context the Neolithic age begins from 9000 BC but an ancient society has been discovered in Mehargarh in Baluchistan which is believed to have existed in 7000 BC. Stone tools form the technical base of information gathered about the fundamental elements of Neolithic economy i.e. food cultivation and animal rearing. The first and foremost invention of Neolithic age is food cultivation (agro activities), animal rearing and permanent settlings. Utensils became necessary after the invention of agriculture and that is why invention of pottery also reflects in this era.
2. (b) Remains of Harappa as well as pre Harappa civilization have been found in Kalibanga. Kalibanga is situated on the banks of Ghaggar in Ganganagar district of Rajasthan. This city is fortified from both sides. Houses here are made of clay bricks. Kalibanga literally means bangles made of black soil. Evidences of wooden plough and ploughed fields have been found here. Fire pits have also been found here and that can be linked to Vajra system. Evidences about cultivation of two types of crops I have been found. There are evidences suggesting the use of decorated bricks in floor making. Evidences of wooden pipes have been found here. A human dead body has been found at this spot that was lying on its stomach and its head was in the north while leg was pointing towards south. Solid wheels with spindles have also been found which point. towards the existence of some carriage. The oldest evidence of earthquake has been found in Kalibanga. A paired mausoleum has been found in kalibanga also. A razor wraped in cotton cloth has also been found at this spot.
3. (b) First mention of the term ‘Gotra’ is found in Rigveda while the gotra system is found in Atharvaveda.
4. (c) The believers and non-believers in Nida are differentiated on the basis of their faith in the authenticity of the Vedas. Spirituality in India is divided across two line believers (Ishwarvaadi) and nonbelievers (Anishwarvaadi). They are also known as the two branches of Vedas. The term non-believers or nastik in Vedas is used to describe those who oppose it. In conclusion it can be said that philosophies like charvak, jains, buddhists etc who do not believe in Vedas are non-believers whereas nyay, vaisheshik, sankhya, yoga, mimansa and vedant are belierver philosophies. –
5. (d) Prominent Indian philosophies and their promoters: (A) Sankhya Darshan – Kapil, (B) Nyaya Darshan-Gautam, (C) Vaisheshik Darshan- Kanad, (D) Yoga Darshan Patanjali, (E) Purvi Mimansa Darshan Jamini, (F) Uttar Mimansa Darshan Badrayan; (G) Lokavrat Charvak
6. (b) The megaliths of neolithic age found in South India have been identified as a place of burial of the dead.
7. (b) Kadamb dynasty was founded by Mayurasharma. It is said that he had arrived in Kanchi for studies and later he had clashes with the Pallavas. Its capital was Banvasi. Mayurasharma performed 18 Ashvamegh Yagya and donated numerous villages to the Brahmans. Later on Pulkeshin II annexed Kadamb kingdom. Propagators:
8. (c)
9. (d) Vikramshila university was established by the Pal ruler Dharampal. It should be noted that Pal dynasty was started by Gopal in 705 AD. Dharampal (770-810. was the successor of Gopala. He was the greatest king of Pal dynasty. He expanded his rule till Kannauj and preserved his kingdom from the tripartite clashes with Pratiharas and Rashtrakutas. The pal rulers followed Buddhism and several Buddhist educational institutions flourished during their reign.
10. (a) Rashtrakuta empire was established by Dantidurg who snatched majority of Deccan from the Chalukya ruler Kirtiman. After this his uncle Krishna I became his successor who dealt the final blow to the strength of Chalukyas. Krishna’s son Govind – II was dethroned by his brother Dhruva and he became the ruler. Dhruva was the first Rashtrakuta ruler who intervened in the tripartite struggle going on between Pratihara ruler Vatsraja and Pala king Dharampalaand defeated them. The Kailasha temple on Ellora was built by Krishna – I while the Dashavtar temple was built by Dantidurg. The official language of Rashtrakuta was kannada.
11. (d) Lakshman samvat was started by Sen dynasty. It should be noted that Sen dynasty was founded by Samant.Sen in Radh. Ballal Sen’s successor Laksman Sen emerged victorious in the military movement against Gadhwal ruler Jaichand. Bakhtiyar Khilji had attacked Lakshman Sen’s capital Lakhnouti in 1202. Geet Govind’s author Jaidev and Dhoi, the author of Halayudh Pavandootam lived in Lakshman Sen’s court.
12. (c) Agra city was founded in 1504 AD by Sikandar lodhi who was a ruler of the Lodhi dynasty and in 1506 AD he shifted his capital to Agra. It should be noted that Sikandar Lodhi used to write poems under the pen name of Gulrukhi.
13. (c) Tuti-i-hind Amir Khusro was born in 1253 in Patiali (western Uttar Pradesh, Etah). His prominent creations are Khajayanul-Fatuh-nuhsipehar, ashiqa, Kiran-us-sadden, tuglaqnama etc. It should be noted that Amir Khusro was a disciple of Nizammuddin Auliya.
14. (c) Mughal emperor Jahangir (1605-1627) imposed a ban on the use of tobacco. He had installed a golden chain named Nyaya ki Zanjir on a stone pillar in shahburj, the a agra fort and on the banks of river Yamuna. During his reign a ban was also imposed on eunuch trade.
15. (C) Shivaji defeated the Mughals in the Battle of Salghar in 1659. It should be noted here that Shivaji was born in the fort of Shivner on 27th April 1627. He was the son of Jeejabai, first wife of Shahji Bhonsle. Shivaji made Raigarh his capital in 1656 and was coronated in 1674 and attained the title of Chhatrapati. He started a new calendar on this occasion. Shivaji was coroneted by pandit Visheshwar Alias Gangabhatt. Shivaji died in 1680 at the age of 53.
16. (a) The battle of Palasy was fought on 23rd June 1757 at the banks of river Bhagirathi in Southern Murshidabad between the nawab of Bengal, Sirajuddaula and Lord Clive. This battle proved to be symbolic as Mirjafar and Raidurlabh who were on the side of nawab decided to stay away from the battle as a part of conspiracy. Only a small army which was under the command of Mohanlal and Mirmardan helped by a French officer took part in the battle from the side of nawab.
17. (d) Raja Ram Mohan Roy was the first scholar who raised his voice against the malpractices prevalent in the contemporary society. He is known as the father of modern India and a champion crusader of Renaissance Movement in India. He oppose the caste system, sati pratha and idol worship etc. He founded the Hindu college in Calcutta in 1816 to impart western education. He translated the Upanishads into English. He is known as the originator of journalism in India. He formed the Brahma Samaj in 1828. Its objective was to believe in the god who is the administrator and savior of the entire world and who is true, acceptable to all and unalterable. He died in Bristol, England in 1833.
18. (d) Madan Mohan Malviya advocated strongly in favour of religious education in Indian universities. Malviya founded the Benaras Hindu University in 1916.
19. (b) After studying the land revenue system, Sir John Shore had prepared a new mechanism for land system during the tenure of Lord Cornwallis (1786-83 & 1805). It was later established as the Settlement (Bandobasti) System on 22nd March 1793. It became the first rule of the Cornwallis code on 1 May 1793. The provisions were as follows: (1) The landlords were made the owner of their own land. (2) The land revenue collected from the landlords was fixed or settled permanently. (3) 10/11 or 9/10 part of the land revenue was given to the company. (4) If a landlord failed to pay the taxes for any reason his ownership was cancelled. This permanent settlement was enforced in Bihar, Bengal and Orissa at first. Later on this system was also enforce in Madras presidency. The division of Bengal was done during the tenure of Lord Curzon (1899-1905). First Factory Law (1881) and first official census (1881) was done during the tenure of Lord Ripon (18801884). Lord Velejali called himself the Bengal Tiger and he started the subsidiary alliance.
20. (c) Lord Curzon was the Viceroy from 1899 to 1905. He is known as one the most unpopular viceroys of India. His important works are as follows: formation of a University Commission in 1902, Indian University Law in 1904 and formation of a famine commission. Formation of irrigation department under Sir Colin Scott Moncrieff in 1901 and completion of work on river Jhelum. India was included in the list of gold standards. Reduction of number of elected members in Calcutta Municipal Corporation by Calcutta Municipal Corporation Act 1899. Ancient Monuments Act passed in 1904. Partition of Bengal in 1905 and the formation of a new North West frontier etc.
21. (b) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote the Anand Math during the national movement. The national song ‘Vande Mataram’ is borrowed from this book. should be noted that Durgeshnandini and Bang Darshan are also written by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay.
22. (b) The largest concentration of slum dwellings in India is found in Maharashtra. It should be noted here that unplanned and uncontrolled urbanization in many Indian cities has caused a problem of lack of residential houses which is a main reason behind the rise in slum dwellings. According to census 2001 almost 1/4th population in cities resides in slums. In Maharashtra almost 1.64 million population is living in these slums. The Dharavi area of Mumbai holds the first position in Asia in slum dwellings. At present the population growth rate of India is 8%. If this rate persists then by 2030 75% to 80% population will be living in such colonies which will be a major challenge for a country like India.
23. (c) India’s regional water boundaries extend up to 12 nautical miles from the sea coast.
24. (b) Due to tectonic plate activities the north western part of India is prone to earthquake.
25. (c) Chulia waterfalls river Chambal; Jog or Garsoppa waterfalls or Mahatma Gandhi waterfalls – river Sharavati; Shiv Samudram waterfalls – river Cauvery; Dugdhdhara waterfalls, Kapildhahra waterfalls and Dhuandhar waterfalls are situated on river Narmada. 1
26. (a) The highest concentration of mountain goats is found in Eravikulam national park. It also found in Periyar national park in small numbers.
27. (b) Government of India has declared the great Indian bustard as highly endangered species.
28. (b) Chinar wild life sanctuary is situated in Kerala. Other sanctuaries are Parambikulam wild life sanctuary – Palaghat (Kerala), Periyar wild life sanctuary – Iduki (Kerala), Madumalai wild life sanctuary – Nilgiri (Tamil Nadu), Mamdaf wild life sanctuary. Tirap ( Arunachal Pradesh), Dachigram wild life sanctuary – Srinagar (Jammu & Kashmir), Ross national park – Ross Island (Andaman & Nicobar Islands).
29. (d) India is self-dependent in Thorium. Thorium is obtained from Monazite. India has world’s largest monazite concentration. Monazite is mainly found in the sands of Kerala. Thorium is present in 8% to 10%. Apart from this Thorium is also found in Jharkhand (Hazaribagh), Rajasthan (Udaipur) and Tamil Nadu (Nilgiri).
30. (a) Rourkela Steel plant is fed iron from Kyonjhar, Bonai. Coal is obtained from Jharia, Bokaro, Talcher. Manganese is obtained from Kyonjhar and water supply comes from river Brahamni and Shankh. It should be noted here that during Second Five Year plan three industries – Durgapur (with the help of Britain), Bhilai (with the help of USSR) and Rourkela (with the help of Germany) were set up.
31. (b) (A) Australia Vili Vili, (B) China – Typhoon (C) India – Cyclone (D) United States of America – Hurricane.
32. (c) 38° North latitude is the international boundary between North & South Korea. Other important international boundaries are: McMahon line – It is the international boundary between India and China. It was marked by Sir Henry McMahon. Manginot line between France and Germany. Durand line demarcated by Sir Mortimer Durand between India and Afghanistan in 1896.. Hidenberg line between Poland and Germany. Radcliff line-demarcated by Sir Kyle Radcliff between India and Pakistan. 17th Parallel line-between North & South Vietnam. 20th Parallel line between India and Pakistan; not acknowledged by India. 49th Parallel line between USA & Canada. – 1
33. (b) In between the Gulf of Persia and Gulf of Oman (Oman – Iran) – Hormuj strait. In between sea of Marmara and Black sea (Turkey) – Bosphuras strait. Sea of Marmara and Asian seas (Turkey) – Dardanelles strait. Between Arabian Sea and Red Sea (Yemen Djibouti) – Babal-Mandeb strait. Between Mediterinean Sea and Alantic Ocean (Spain, Morocco) – Starit of Gibraltar.
34. (a) (1) Brazil current, (2) Southern Equatorial current. They both are the currents in South Atlantic Ocean and are warm currents. Falkland current and Venezuela current are cold currents and flow in the South Atlantic Ocean. Lebrador current, Greenland current and Kenari current are cold currents and flow in the North Atlantic Ocean. Northern Equatorial current, Florida current and Gulf current are warm currents of North Atlantic Ocean.
35. (c) There are different layers of air in our atmosphere and they all are very different from each other in terms of temperature and density. The ascending sequence of these layers in terms of temperature is as follows: Troposphere: It is the lowest layer and most dense layer of atmosphere which consists of almost 75% of total mass of air. Stratosphere: Stratosphere is situated just above the troposphere. Its height from the surface extends up to 50 km. Mesosphere: It is situated above the stratosphere and extends at a height of 50-80 km from the surface. Ionosphere: This layer extends from 80 to 400 km from the surface of earth. Exosphere: It is the outermost layer of the atmosphere. In this layer the atmosphere becomes very thin and slowly tend to vanish in the outer space. Note: the transitional layer between troposphere and stratosphere is known as the tropopause.
36. (c) Stratosphere is located above the troposphere. It extends up to a height of 50 km. The temperature in the lower part of this layer (up to 20 km) remains very stable but it increases gradually till the height of 50 km. It is so because of the presence of ozone gas that absorbs all the infra red rays coming from the sun. The density of ozone is maximum between the height of 20 to 35. km and hence it is also known as the Ozonosphere. Chloro Fluoro Carbon (CFC) and halogenated gases like halogen have caused severe damage to this layer. The speed of air in this layer is horizontal.
37. (d) Rubber is a plant of tropical moist climate. Thailand is world’s largest producer of natural rubber. After it Indonesia, Malaysia and India hold the world rankings in its production. Note: The southern peninsular region of Thailand is the largest producer of rubber (it produces almost 34% of national production). Rubber plantation is done in the Java and Bornia island in Indonesia but the maximum produce is obtained from Sumatra (almost 22.2% of total produce is obtained from here). In Malaysia, rubber plantation is done in the lower coastal plain region and almost 12.15% of total produce is obtained from here.
38. (a) Cotton cloths account for almost 70% of all clothes produced. The availability of easy market is an important factor in its localization. In present era China holds the first position in the production of cotton in the world. It main centers are – e-Shanghai, Hankou, Nanking, Kenton, Harbin, Tienshin, Honanfu, Singatiyayo, Shinan and Captain etc. Shanghai is also known as the Manchester of China. India stands at second position in cotton cloths production in the world.
39. (a) The grape farming in Mediterranean sea region in Europe is distinct. 85% of grapes produced here are used to manufacture alcohol. It should be noted that the Mediterranean sea agricultural region is also known as the farm of the world.
40. (c) Bushman tribe lives in the Kalahari Desert in South Africa. The Bushman tribe depends upon hunting animals and birds, fish and vegetables, fruits and honey obtained from the jungles for food. Masai tribe is the animal rearing tribe that reside in Kenya, North Tanzania and plateau region of Northern Uganda. Their settlement is located in the east of Victoria lake. Meat forms an important part of their livelihood. These meats are obtained from goats, sheep etc. Apart from meat they also rely on drinking cow milk. Pigmy tribe lives on both sides of the equator and they are spread in between 3° North latitude and 3° South latitude. Congo river in Africa, river Aruvima, river Ituri, river OG and some highlands in the basin of river Kasai is the living area of pigmies. Baddu tribe is found in Arab and it’s a nomadic tribe. Note: Pigmy tribe: Zaire (Congo) Basin, Bushman – Kalahari desert, Maori New Zealand, Buddu Arab and Aina – Japan.
41. (a) This question is related with capitals. Beijing is the capital of China. Capital of Canada – Ottawa. Capital of Australia – Canberra. Capital of Russia Moscow. Capital of Great Britain London. Capital of France – Paris.
42. (b) There is no land locked region in North America continent. This continent is spread over 16% of total landmass of the globe. It is world’s third largest continent. North America is surrounded by three oceans-Arctic Ocean in the North, Pacific Ocean in the West and Atlantic Ocean in the East. Gulf of Mexico and Caribbean Sea are located South of the continent and form a part of it. It is connected to South American islands by the Panama Strait. Bering straits separate it from Asia. Isthmus of Panama joins North America and South America.
43. (c) 98% of Turkey falls in Asia and the remaining 2% is a part of Europe. Turkey is known as the gateway of Asia because it is located between Asia and Europe. Istanbul city of Turkey is located in Asia as well as Europe. Ararat Mountain in Turkey is a dormant volcano. It is covered with snow throughout the year and rivers Dajla and Farat flow through this mountain.
44. (b) Egypt is known as the gift of Nile because a dam (Aswan Dam) built on the river makes the arrangement for irrigation in Egypt. It should be noted that river Nile originates from river Nile and falls in the Mediterranean Sea. Its total length is 6500 km.
45. (a) On 23rd April 2002, Planning Commission published its first human development report on the basis of health, education and income. According to this report the overall human development index has shown great improvement during the decade of economic reforms in India (1991-2001). In the human development index, Kerala is at the top followed by Punjab, Tamil Nadu, Maharashtra and Haryana at the second, third, fourth and fifth positions respectively.
46. (c) Worlds 10 largest GDP in 2005 are (1) United States, (2) Japan, (3) Germany, (4) United Kingdom, (5) France, (6) Italy, (7) China, (8) Spain, (9) Canada, (10) India. Note: Due to an increase in buying capacity India has remained as the fourth largest economy of the world.
47. (b) At the time of framing of question, India was the fourth largest economy of the world in PPP ratings. As per the current assumptions by World Bank, India is placed at the third position after USA and China.
48. (d) Exim Bank or Indian ExportImport Bank was founded on 1st January 1982. Its objective is to provide financial assistance to exporters and importers. It should be noted thae National Agricutural and Rural Bank (NABARD) was founded on 12th July 1982.
49. (b) IRDA is the regulating body for insurance sector in India. It should be noted that Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority was founded on the recommendation of Malhotra Committee on 19th April 2000. Founded to regulate insurance in India, this body is fully responsible to the Parliament of India.
50. (a) Tuberculosis is a contagious disease. It is caused by bacteria called Micobacterium Tuberculosis. It is also known as caries and phthisis. The bacteria of TB was discovered by German scientist Robertkoch in 1882. These bacteria enter in the mouth while spitting or kissing. The patient has a light fever and cough. Mucus increase a lot. The patient always feels weak and tired. Blood starts coming out with mucus. Appetite is lost. If proper treatment is not given even at this stage the patient keeps getting weaker and ultimately dies. When this bacteria enters the lymphatic gland it damages the gland. They cause decay in the intestine, brain and bones.
51. (a) Dragon Fly is the name of a machine which absorbs moisture from the air to produce drinking water.
52. (a) The scarcity of rainfall in Western Himalayas is quite evident. A change in the pattern and type of vegetation according to height can also be seen.
53. (c) Sun is a star located approximately 150 million km from Earth. Light from sun takes approximately 8 minutes to reach earth. The temperature at the surface of the sun is 6000° C. Its outer layer is known as chromospheres. The central part is known as photosphere and its temperature is approximately 15000° C. Sun takes 250 million years to complete on revolution on its axis. This period is known as 1 cosmic year. Sun is 109 times larger than earth and its weight is 2 x 10²7 ton. Sun is primarily made up of hydrogen. The temperature of corona is approximately is 2,700,000° C where as the temperature of its core is 15 million Kelvin. The black lines present inside the corona is known as Fraunhofer. Hydrogen emitted from the sun is known as prominence. The stream of Protien flowing outwards from the corona is known as the Solar wind. It is made of plasma. The gravitational pull of the earth disturbs this flow and acts as a security cover. The black spots on the sun are known as Solar spots. These spots appear black because they are relatively cold:
54. (c) The sky appears black to an astronaut because there is no atmosphere and the light rays do not get diffracted. It should be noted that sky appears blue from the earth because the light rays from the sun get refracted after entering earth’s atmosphere.
55. (d) Ionospheres is also known as thermosphere. This layer spreads from a height of 80 km to 400 km. Temperature in this layer increases rapidly. The radio signal propagated from the surface also gets reflected back after hitting this layer. Air in this layer is electrically charged and hence the air particles in this layer glow due to electric charges. These glitters are known only on the poles of the earth and they are closely related to earth’s magnetic force.
56. (d) According to K C Wheeler – The Constitution of India strikes an astounding balance between extreme rigidity and extreme flexibility. According to Sir Ivor Jennings the reason for rigidity of Indian constitution is because the process of making changes in it a little complex and exhausting and the area of law within the constitution is so huge that it puts a question mark on its validity. Dr. BR Ambedkar said: I feel that this constitution is practical, flexible and it has the capability to keep the nation united during the time of war and peace. According to Alexandrovich – Indian constitution has a beautiful procedure for amendments because it is neither too rigid nor too flexible. Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru had said – even though we wanted the constitution to be static and rigid still nothing in the constitution is static. There should be some progression in the constitution.
57. (c) First meeting of the constituent assembly for framing the constitution was held on 9th December 1946 and the last meeting was held on 24th January 1950. Total 12 sessions were held across 167 days. Out of these, 114 days were taken for discussion of the draft constitution. Sessions of the constituent assembly: First session objective resolution; Second session – appointment of committees; Third session committee reports; Fourth session acceptance of the national flag; Fifth session – embrace responsibilities of sovereign powers; Sixth session – draft constitution by the drafting committee; Seventh session – first reading; Eighth session – membership of commonwealth; Ninth session abolishing the privileges of privy purses; Tenth session – second reading; Eleventh session – third reading; Twelfth session – declaration of national anthem and election of the President.
58. (b) There was no mention of a secular state in the original Constitution of India. The word ‘secular’ was added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment 1976 in the preamble of the constitution. Fundamental rights are described in Part 3 of the Constitution of India from Article 12 to Article 35. Directive principles of state policy are described in Part 4 from Article 36 to 51. Ninth schedule was added in the constitution through 1st Constitutional Amendment 1951.
59. (c) Government of India Act 1935 – it is the most important source of the Constitution of India. 1935 Act has a great influence on the framework, its subject list and language.
British constitution – parliamentary form of government, law framing procedures, single citizenship and rule of law
Constitution of the United States of America – Fundamental rights, supremacy of the constitution, independent judiciary, judicial reviews, impeachment of the President, Vice President
Constitution of France – of republic formation
Constitution of Ireland – Directive Principles of State Policy, Electoral College for the election of President of India, nomination of members to the Rajya Sabha from the field of Music, Arts, Literature science etc.
Constitution of Australia – Language of the preamble of the Constitution of India, concurrent list, Article 301, Trade and commerce.
Constitution of Canada federal structure, residual powers, strong center system
Weimer Constitution of Germany Powers about the fundamental rights resides in the President during the time of emergency.
Constitution of South Africa – process of Constitutional amendment
Constitution of Japan established by the law. process
Constitution of erstwhile USSR Fundamental duties
60. (d) One of the special characteristic of the Constitution of India is the establishment of a secular state. In Indian context word secular describes India as a state that has no religion.
Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar had said that being a secular state does not mean that the state will not care for the religious sentiments of its people. It only means that the parliament will not have power to impose any religion on the people of India.
61. (d) It is stated in the Article 70 of the Constitution of India that if a situation arises when the President as well as the Vice President of India is unable to discharge his duties then the Parliament shall arrange for the discharge of their duties. Under Article 70, the parliament had passed the Presidents Discharge of Function Bill 1969. It states that if the position of both the president as well as Vice President falls vacant then the chief justice of the Supreme Court of India and in his absence the senior most Chief Justice of the High Court available shall discharge his duties. From 1950 to 2007 such a situation has come only one time when the office of President as well as Vice President fell vacant simultaneously and Justice Hidayatulla, who was the chief justice of India, had worked as the President from 20th July 1969 to 24th August 1969. At that time the President Zakir Husaain had died and the vice president V V Giri had resigned from his office to fight the election for the President.
62. (b) Governor of a state the head of its executive and the entire executive powers reside with the governor. All the executive works of the state are carried out in the name of Governor. It is stated in Article 153 of the Constitution of India that there shall be a governor for every state but by the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act 1956, Article 6 was added and it states that any individual canbecome the governor of two or more states simultaneously. Governor is a part of the state executive (Article 168); the Governor cannot pardon capital punishment (Article 161); the Judges of the High Court are appointed by the President of India (Article 216) and all the emergency reside with the President and not with the governor (Article 352-360).
63. (a) The provisions of election of the President of India is stated in Article 54 of the Constitution of India. Provisions regarding the appointment of Prime Minister and his council of ministers are stated in Article 75. Article 155 contains the provisions regarding the appointment of governor of a state. Article 164 states the provisions regarding the appointment of Chief Minister and his council of ministers. It should be noted that Article 168 (1) states that there shall be a legislature for every state which will comprise of the governor and (A) both the state assemblies of Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Maharshtra, Karnataka (B) and state assembly for every other state. Section (2) any state where there are two houses – one shall be called Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha) and Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad) and in the states where there is only one house, it shall be known as Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha).
64. (c) Public accounts committee Finance committee; Petition committee Working committee; Stock market – Scan Joint committee – Ad Hoc committee. It should be noted that in the Indian Parliamentary system there are two types of committees permanent committee and ad hoc committee. Permanent committees are those committees that are elected from among the members every year or at some regular interval as the situation may demand. The members are elected by the Parliament or nominated by the Chairman/Speaker and these committees are permanent in nature. Ad Hoc committees are those committees which are formed by the parliament or Chairman/Speaker in order to look into some distinct matter and present its report on the same. They are dissolved when they achieve the objective. Estimate committee, committee on Public undertakings and Public accounts committee is financial committee. Petition committee and Privilege committee are Enquiry committees. Committee on government assurances, committee of subordinate legislation, committee on papers tabled in the parliament and committee of scheduled caste and scheduled tribes are investigating committee. General purpose committee, housing committee, library committee and committee of salaries of members of parliament joint committee etc are service committee. Committee of members not appearing in parliamentary proceedings, work advisory committee, committee of non government members and their bills and oath etc are parliamentary committee. Public accounts committee is often referred to as the twin sister of estimates committee because their work is complimentary to each other. Petition committee is capable of taking shape of public complaints or Ombudsman. Privilege committee is often constituted by the presiding officer of the house every year. It consists of 15 members from the Lok Sabha and 10 members of the Rajya Sabha. Their functioning is quasijudicial and they enjoy much power.
65. (b) Normally the Indian Parliament cannot legislate on the matters of the state list but under some circumstances the Parliament can legislate in such matters. For example if the Rajya Sabha passes a motion that doing so would be in the national interest (Article 249), if there is an emergency in place (Article 252). It should be noted that the matters of legislation has been divided between the center and the state by the Constitution of India. They are known as center list, state list and. concurrent list. Center has the power to legislate in the matters of center list, state can legislate in matters of state list and both central as well as state government can legislate on the matters of Concurrent list. Center can legislate on the matters of state list only in the above mentioned situation.
67. (b) A brief explanation of entire electro-magnetic spectrum, their wavelengths and propagation is as follows: Gamma Rays (Y-rays): Wavelength10-13 to 10-10 meter. Production – they are emitted from nuclear fission. Properties: chemical reaction on photographic plates, fluorescent, phosphorescence, ionization, diffraction, high piercing capability and not electrically charged.
X rays: Wavelength 10-10 to 10-8 meter. Production-collision of high speed electrons with heavy targets. Properties: all the properties of Y rays but piercing ability is low.
Ultra Violet radiation: Wavelength – 10-8 to 4 x 10-7 meter. Production – Sun, Arc, Spark, Ionized gases. Properties – all the properties of Y-rays but the piercing ability is low and is influenced by light.
Visible Radiation: Wavelength range 4 x 10-7 to 7.8 x 10-7 meter. Production from ionized gases and radiated from incandescent objects. Properties – refraction, reflection, deviation, diffraction, polarization, photo electric effects, photographic activities and vision sensing.
Infra-red radiations: Wavelength range 7.8 x 10-7 meter to 10-³ meters. Production from hot objects. Properties Heating effect on voltmeter and thermometer etc, reflection, refraction, diffraction, photography etc.
Hertizen or short radio waves: Wavelength range 10-3 to 1 meter. Production they are obtained from blast emissions. Properties reflection, refraction, diffraction etc. is able to create spark in the receiver circuit.
Long radio Waves or Wireless: Wavelength range – 1 meter to 104 meter. Production – immersion from spark gaps. Properties reflection, refraction and diffraction.
68. (d) Visible Radiation: Wavelength range – 4 x 10-7 to 7.8 x 10-7 meter (4000 nm to 7800 nm). Production from hot objects. Properties – Heating effect on voltmeter and thermometer etc, reflection, refraction, diffraction, photography etc.
69. (a) When light is incident on an atom, nucleus and small particles it gets scattered in various directions. The atmosphere consists of atoms and nucleus of various different gases and small particles of dust and smoke. Therefore, when the sun rays which is made of seven lights (violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow, orange and red) passes through the atmosphere, it collides with these particles and is propagated in different direction. This process is known as scattering of light. According to Lord Rayleigh, the scattering of a particular light depends upon its wavelength. Smaller the wavelength, lesser will the scattering. Wavelength of red colour is most out of all the seven colours propagated from sunlight. Scattering of light can be seen in our daily lives. The sky appears blue due to scattering of sunlight. During noon when the sun shines above our head, we are able to see only scattered light. Since the scattering of violet colour light is most and for red it is the least therefore the sky appears as a mixture of these two lights. When the sun rises or sets, the light rays from it have to travel a larger distance and they get more scattered. Since scattering of red colour is least as compared to other colours therefore to the receiver it reaches more prominently. Therefore, the rising or setting sun appears red in colour. When the sun is shining above our head the light rays have to travel a comparatively smaller distance. Therefore, the scattering is less and the sun appears white. Sea water also appears blue to us because of scattering. When an astronaut is standing on the surface of moon the sky appears black to him. Actually, the sky appears black due to absence of atmosphere once we leave earth’s atmosphere.
70. (d) Laser 3D lamp is used to inspect hologram. It forms a 3 dimensional image.
71. (d) Bats propagate ultrasonic sound waves while flying. When these waves fall upon any object, they get reflected back to the source (bat) and by this the bat makes out for the obstruction ahead and it flies saving itself from them. In fact, the bat can hear ultrasonic sounds with a frequency of 100000 Hz. It should be noted here that on the basis of frequency, mechanical waves can be classified into three categories. They are as follows –
Sonic waves – these are the mechanical waves with a frequency range between 20 Hz to 20000 Hz. These sound waves can be heard by our ears.
Sub Sonic waves – these are the mechanical waves with a frequency lower than 20 Hz. We are not able to hear these sound waves. These waves are produced under the surface of earth after an earthquake. The frequency of beating of our heart is equivalent to the frequency of a sub sonic wave.
Ultrasonic waves – they are longitudinal waves with frequency higher than 20000 Hz.
72. (a) The gravitational force on the surface of moon is 1/6th of the gravitational force on the surface of earth. The reason for lower gravitational force can be attributed to the lack of atmosphere. In the space human becomes weightless thus the weight of a person in will be zero. space
73. (c) Semiconductor – the number of free electron in semiconductors is less than that in a conductor and its resistance is 10-2 to 1.0 ohm per meter. The resistance of a semiconductor decreases with an increase in temperature and its conductivity increases. Example – germanium, silicon, selenium etc.
74. (a)
(i) The first fundamental element called electron was discovered first. It was discovered by Thomson in 1897. Electrons are negatively charged particles and revolve around the nucleus of an atom. They carry a charge of -1.6 x 10-19 coulomb. Its mass is 9.1 x 10-31 kg. Its relative electrical charge is -1. The relative electric charge on an electron was discovered by Millikan. It is a permanent fundamental particle.
(ii) Proton is a positively charged particle. It was discovered by Rutherford in 1919. It carries a positive charge of 1.6 × 10-¹9, equivalent to an electron. They are located in the nucleus of an atom. Their weight is 1.67 × 1027 kg. It is also a permanent fundamental particle. .
(iii) Neutron is electrically neutral particles. It was discovered by Chadwick in 1932. They are also located in the nucleus of an atom alongside protons. Its mass is equal to the mass of proton. When a neutron is out of nucleus it becomes radioactive and its half life is 12 minutes. It disintegrates in 7 minutes to form electron and proton. Neutron is used in biology and medical science. Since they are electrically neutral they are also used for nuclear fission.
(iv) Positron is a positively charged particle whose mass is equal to . the mass of electron and proton. Therefore, it is also known as anti particle. It was discovered in 1932 by Anderson.
(v) Neutrino is a mass less and electrically neutral particle. It was discovered by Pauli in 1930. They can be classified into two types- Neutrino and anti neutrino. Their spin is opposite to each other.
(vi) Photon are bundles of energy that travel at the velocity equivalent to light. All electromagnetic rays are made of these fundamental particles. Their mass at rest is zero.
75. (d) The waste obtained after the use of plastic is mixed with bitumen to build roads. Plastic becomes soft on heating and gradually on cooling it becomes hard. This is the property due to which it is used in building roads.
76. (b) The main function of root is to keep the plant stable with the soil and absorb water and minerals from the soil. In some plants roots get transformed to perform specific tasks. Roots can be classified in two categories. They are as follows –
(A) Tap root: These roots become swollen as they have food collected inside them. Tap roots are modified in three ways –
(i) Spindle shaped root: It is swollen in the middle and thin from both ends. In these roots various secondary roots come out which do the work of absorption. Ex- radish.
(ii) Cone shaped roots: Due to nutrient concentration these roots are swollen from the top and thin at the bottom. This makes the root look like a cone. The secondary roots that come out of the primary roots do the work of absorption. Ex – carrot.
(iii) Pot shaped roots: These roots are swollen at the base and center of top and resembles a pot but the lower portion is very thin. Secondary roots come out from the lower portion. Ex-turnip, beet root etc.
(B) Modification of Tuberous roots: They develop in all parts except the radical. They do not go very deep in the soil. Epistemic roots are classified in three categories (a) Food storage roots: (1) Bulbous roots – these roots grow out of stem and swell irregularly. On bulbous roots fibrous buds are found. They help in enhancement. Ex-sweet potato. (2) Bushy roots – they swell from the base of primary stem. Tuberous roots are found on these roots. Ex – dahlia. (3) Rhizome – These kinds of roots are swollen from the bottom due to food storage. 1
77. (a) Diabetes cannot be controlled by vaccination whereas the other three can be controlled by vaccination. It should be noted here that diabetes is a condition in which the pancreas stop producing the hormone insulin and therefore the sugar is not disintegrated. Therefore the level of sugar in blood and urine increases. The amount energy in the patient decreases and he becomes week. Regular thirst and urination are common symptom. Sugar and sugar products should be avoided in this disease and the patient should take the injections of sugar regularly. All the cases of diabetes are not the same. International diabetes federation (1977) has broadly classified diabetes in two categories.
Type I diabetes or Insulin dependent diabetes –
Type II diabetes or Non- Insulin dependent diabetes. 90 to 95% patient in India belong to type- II.
Whooping cough – It usually affects small children and the cause is bordetella pertussisbacteria. It is communicated kthrough air. Therefore, children should be vaccinated by DPT to develop resistance against this disease.
Chicken pox It is spread through variola virus. It affects the entire body. It spread through the air surrounding the patient or by coming in direct contact of the patient. Therefore, vaccination for chicken pox should be done.
Polio – Polio spreads through mellitus virus. In this disease the virus enters the intestine of children through food or water. Polio drops are given to check this disease.
78. (a) Yeasts are eukaryotic singlecelled fungi. It is devoid if any chlorophyll therefore they are unable to make their own food. They were first observed by Anton van Leeuwenhoek. They are mainly used to prepare alcohol, beer, wine and double bread. Louis Pasteur was the first person to discover the fermentation activity of yeast. Bacteriawas discovered by Anton van Leeuwenhoek of Holland. In 1683, he was the first one to observe bacteria through his microscope in the scraps of teeth. He called them microorganisms. This is the reason Anton van Leeuwenhoek is known as the father of Microbiology. Later, Ehrenberg was the first person to call them bacteria. Louis Pasteur propagated the germ theory by carrying out fermentation activities during 1812 to 1815. Robert Koch was the first person to perform the artificial promotion of bacteria in 1881 and separated the bacteria for tuberculosis and cholera. He was awarded the Nobel Prize for this in 1905. These are single celled microorganisms that have no chlorophyll.
79. (d) khaira is a disease which is caused to lack of zinc. Anemia is caused due to lack of iron. Goiter is caused due to the lack of iodine and scurvy is caused due to the lack of vitamin C.
80. (c) AIDS is an acronym for acquired immuno deficiency syndrome. It is mainly a sexually transmitted disease. It is an example of destruction of acquired immunity of human body. This disease is caused when the body is contaminated by Human Immuno-deficiency Virus (HIV). In this disease the immunity of the patient is destroyed. HIV destroys this system due to which any virus or bacteria is able to cause disease in the human body. Patient’s body swells from various parts and the transmission of blood is disrupted.
Note: (i) The credit for nomenclation of AIDS goes Luke Mo (France) and Dr. Robert C Gello (USA). (ii) It was first discovered in Kinshasha (Africa) in 1959. (iii) It got transferred in to humans from the green african monkeys of Zaire. (iv) In humans, AIDS is caused due to two types of Viruses – HIV-I and HIV-II. (v) In India, the first AIDS patient came to light in Chennai in 1986. (vi) HIV-I is more spread worldwide. (vii) Since the year 1988, 1st December is observed as World AIDS Day. (viii) In India, National AIDS Research Institute is located in Pune (Maharashtra).
81. (d) The worm used in vermiculture is earthworm. Earthworms disrupt the soil thereby creating air pores in them which makes them fertile. This is why earthworms are farmer’s friend. Earthworms act as natural ploughmen or tillers of soil.
82. (c) Work on fast breeder reactor is ongoing only India at present. Only India has achieved mastery on this very advanced technology. Nuclear Power corporation of India Limited had announced the completion of 500 megawatt plutonium based fast breeder reactor in Kalpakkam by 2010. This 3000 crore project will become World’s first plutonium based FBR. It should be noted that only last year the prototype FBR located in Kalpakkam has completed 20 years of active life. Actually Plutonium is obtained as a sub product of processing of Uranium which is used for the production of electricity. Keeping in mind the capacity of nuclear plants in India, the plutonium obtained from their waste will be used to produce 300000 Megawatt electricity. Note – the compatible fuel for fast breeder reactor is obtained from the mixture of uraniumplutonium oxide. In this reactor the chain reaction is carried and continued by the constant bombardment of neutrons and the number of disintegrated neutrons in this process is more than that in a thermal reactor. In a thermal reactor only 1-2% of natural uranium gets used up whereas in a fast breeder reactor this amount can increase 60-70 times. In a FBR, Sodium is used as a coolant instead of water. In this reactor the radioactive emission is also less.
83. (c) When an object revolves around the earth with a constant speed, such that it maintains a constant distance with the surface of earth, then it is called as a geostationary object and the position is known as geostationary position.
84. (b) In order to bring prosperity in villages by the use of new technology and to promote voluntary activities in order to bring development in villages the government has launched an autonomous body under the ministry of rural welfare called Council of Advancement of People’s Action and Rural technology (CAPART) in September 1986. Nine zonal councils of CAPART are situated in Jaipur, Lucknow, Ahmadabad, Bhubaneswar, Chandigarh, Patna, Guwahati and Dharwad.
85. (b) In 1995, a committee was set up by Ministry of Industries under Dr. Abid Hussain to study the problems of small scale industries and advice on its development.
86. (b) Minimum Gurantee program, tax imposition and land reforms are the methods of reducing inequality whereas economic reform is a method to reduce inequality.
87. (d) The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is the friend and Guide of the Public Accounts Committee. This committee studies the report presented by the Comptroller and Auditor General on the investment accounts. This committee consistes of 22 members out of which 15 are selected from the lok Sabha and 7 are selected from the Rajya Sabha.
88. (b) Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra, Karnataka and Jammu Kashmir and Andhra Pradesh have the bicameral legislature in the state. Madhya Pradesh does not have a bicameral legislature. In other words, Madhya Pradesh has only Vidhan Sabha.
89. (d) If a member becomes unfit for membership then the decision about his removal is taken by the President on the advice of Election Commission. It should be noted that in case of defection the decision of membership is taken by the Speaker.
90. (b) To study the Center-State relation a 3 member committee was set up on 24th March 1983 justice Ranjit Singt Sarkariya. This committee had submitted its report to the central government in 1987.
91. (a) Police, Law & Order, Jail, public service, judicial administration, public order, purchase, sale, irrigation etc are the matters of the State list. The total number of particulars in this list is 61. Our constitution describes three lists – Union list, State list and Concurrent list. Matters of local importance are mentioned in the state list and the state assembly has the sole authority to frame laws on these matters. Under some special circumstances Parliament is allowed to legislate in these matters.
92. (c) Marriage, Divorce and adoption are mentioned in List III or Concurrent list in 7th Schedule.
93. (c) Protection of fundamental rights comes under the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court as well as the High Court. The Supreme Court enjoys this power through Article 32 and the High Court enjoys this power through Article 226 of the Constitution of India.
94. (d) The provision of judicial review is mentioned in the Constitutions of India and United States of America. In our constitution, this provision is borrowed from the constitution of United States of America. There is provision in Article 137 that the Supreme Court can review any law made by the parliament or the laws framed under the provisions of Article 145. It can also review any decision given by itself.
95. (b)
96. (b)
97. (b)
98. (a)
99. (a)
100. (b)
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